Civils Prelims 2024 Model Questions
TEST 2 on
Indian Polity (Prepared on 28.3.2024 )
Prepared by :Praturi Potayya Sarma,MA,LLB,PGDIRP
GENERAL STUDIES / Model Questions
based on (Current Affairs) Indian Polity – 1
1)In 2018 , Justice Ranjan Gogoi was appointed as Chief
Justice of Supreme Court of India. Consider the following :
I) He is appointed as 46th Chief Justice of
India .
II) Justice Misra had recommended Justice Gogoi as his
successor, as per the practice of naming the senior-most judge after the CJI
for the post
III) President of India signed warrants of appointment of
Justice Gogoi following which a notification announcing his appointment was
issued
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c) (Present Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India: Dr Justice D.Y.Chandrachud)
2) Supreme Court in 2018-2019 informed that NOTA option is not
possible in which of the following elections?
I)MLA elections
II)Rajya Sabha MP elections
III)Gram Panchayt Elections
IV)Municipality elections
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II only
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (b)
3)In 2018-2019 Governors were appointed for states. Consider
the following :
I) J&K : Satyapal Malik
II)Bihar : Lalji Tandon
III)Uttarakhand : BaBy Rani Mourya
Choose the correct one ,
from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c )
4)To reduce air pollution because of burning of crackers
on the eve of Deepawali, Supreme Court of India advised crackers manufacturers to consult whom in 2018-19 ?
I)CSIR
II)NEERI
III) Petroleum & Explosives Safety Organisation
(PESO)
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c )
5) As per Section 29A, People’s Representation Act , a
political party has to follow which principles ?
I)Principle of Socialism
II)Secularism, Democracy, Sovereignty
III)National Integrity
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c)
6)According to which Article of the Constitution of
India, Governor of a state can appoint State
Finance Commission (SFC) ?
I) Article 243 I (73rd and 74th (1992) amendment to Constitution of India )
II)Article 256
III) Article 72
IV) Article 52
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I only
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (a)
7)As per the data submitted by RBI to the Parliamentary
Standing Committee, how much NPAs have come down in the Public Sector Banks ?
(during 1.4.2017 – 31.12.2017) ( Rs. in Crores)
a)1,50,960
b)74,272
c)41,391
d)25,297
Ans : a
8)Who is the chairperson to the Joint Parliamentary
Committee which is studying Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016 ?
a)Santosh Kumar Mohanty
b)Rajendra Agarwal
(on Citizenship) 16 Members are
there including Chairman
c)Subrata Bhattacharjee
d)Sanjeev Nautiyal
Ans : b
9)How many standing committees are there to study the
Central Government decisions, Acts/laws framing, & the working methods ?
a) 24 ( 8 in Rajya Sabha ; 16 in Lok Sabha )
b)12
c)6
d) 4
Ans : a
10)Representation of People’s Act, 1918 granted voting
rights to women in which country ?
a) Great Britain
b) Japan
c) China
d) Nepal
Ans : a
11)Which can be called as ‘Bad Bank’ ? Give details.
a)Public Sector Assets Rehabilitation Agency
b)to solve the twin balance sheet problem in India
c)It will take the bank’s NPAs
d) All the above
Ans : d
12)Central Government appointed Cauvery Water Management
Authority . Consider the following :
I)Every year as on June 1, it will decide the water
reserves in the reservoirs
II) To inform to every state, how much water is to be
released
III)Its chairman period is 5 years
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c)
13)In the Collegium of Supreme Court of India, who are
the Members including its chairman ?
I)Supreme Court of India Chief Justice
II)Supeme Court Judge
III)Supreme Court Judge
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (c)
14)As per Section 53(2)(b) of Jammu & Kashmir
Constitution (Prior to 2020), who has the authority to cancel/dissolve the state assembly ?
I)President of India
II)Governor of J&K
III)Defence Minister
IV)External Affairs Minister
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I only
(b)II only
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (b)
15)Who is the Chairman of UPSC ?
a)Doctor Poonam Khetrapal Singh
b) Manoj Soni
c)RK Singh
d) Sardar Singh
Ans: b
16)According to which section of Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act (DSPE) , a state can withdraw its general consent, from
the jurisdiction of CBI ? Earlier who withdrew ?
I)Section 6 of DSPE Act
II)Sikkim in 1994 Khaji Lendup Dorjee
III)JK Patel, Karnataka, 1998
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I only
(b)II only
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : ( c )
(Recenlty AP and WB)
17)Who is the Chief Election Comissioner of India ?
b)OP Rawat
c)Sampath
d) None of these
Ans : a
18)When supreme court of India issued ‘Visakha
Guidelines’ to protect the women from sexual harassment in working places ?
a)1997
b)1949
c)1975
d)1977
Ans : a
19)Who was the Chief Guest on the eve of Republic Day
(26.1.2019)?
a)Cyril Ramaphosa
b)Imran Khan
c)Maitripala Sirisena
d)Donald Trump
Ans : a (in 2024 Chief Guest is Emmanuel Macron, Prance President)
20)In 2018-2019, Law Commission of India recommended the
Government to remove ‘sedition law’. Consider the following statements
vis-à-vis La Commission of India :
I)I is a statutory body under the Ministry of Law and
Justice
II)Its recommendations with the implementation of
Directive Principle of State Policy are binding on the government
III)Its chairperson has to be the Judge of Supreme Court
(retired) or Chief Justice of High Court (retired)
Choose the correct
statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c ) All the above
( d )None of the above
Ans : (d)
21)In 2019 , Section 124-A (Sedition) was in the news.
Consider the following statements with respect to Section – 124 A:
I)It was introduced by the British Government to deal
with the radical Wahabi Movement of 19th Century Syed Ahmed Barelvi
II)The Supreme Court has clearly mentioned that Section –
124A of IPC shall be applied in the case of ‘Incitement to violence’.
III)Mahatma Gandhi was charged with Section in 1922 for
his article in Young India.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given below
:
(a)I and II
(b) II and III
(c ) All the above
(d) I and III
Ans : c
22) ‘Remission’ application of the convicts of
Rajiv Gandhi assassination was in news. Consider the following statements with
respect to pardoning powers of President and Governor:
I)President and Governor can grant pardon to a person
awarded with death sentence
II)Pardoning power of the President and Governor is
absolute
III)Pardon given by President and Governor is not subject
to judicial review
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) All the above
(d) None of these
Ans : d
23) As per news , while giving out a historical
verdict on decriminalising Section 377, the Supreme Court said that it will
uphold ‘Constitutional Morality’ and not the ‘majoritarian Morality’. In this context, consider the following :
I)The court said that the majoritarian view could not
extinguish the rights of a minority community over its sexual presence and that social
Morality could not be used to put out
fundamental rights
II)The former CJI Deepak Misra declared Constitutional
Morality the winner and held that it embraces within its sphere certain
virtues, foremost of them being the acceptance of a pluralistic and inclusive
society .
III)The concept of Constitutional Morality urges the
organs of the state to preserve the diverse nature of society and to constrain
any attempt by the majority to snatch the rights and freedoms of a smaller or
minority section of the country
IV)It is Constitutional Morality, and not mainstream
views, which should be the driving factor in determining the validity of
similar sections and verdicts.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
24) Dr.Ambedkar said “By Constitutional Morality,George
Grote meant a paramount reverence for the forms of the constitution , enforcing
obedience to authority and acting under and within these forms, yet combined
with the habit of open speech, of action subject only to definite legal control
and unrestrained censure of those very authorities as to all their public and
combined, too with a perfect confidence in the bosom of every citizen amidst
the bitterness of party contest that the forms of constitution will not be less
sacred in the eyes of his opponents than his own “. In this context, consider
the following :
I)Constitutional Morality is important for Constitutional
Laws to be effective
II)Without Constitutional Morality, the operation of a
constitution tends to become arbitrary, erratic and unstable.
III) Constitutional Morality means compliance to the
basic principles of the Constitutional democracy
IV) The scope of the term is not only limited to
following the Constitutional provisions literally but it also involves
commitment to inclusive and democratic political activities in which both
individual and collective interests are fulfilled.
Choose the
correct statement/s from the codes given below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
25)Which of the following are the elements of
Constitutional Morality ?
(a)Freedom and self-restraint
(b)Recognition of Plurality
(c )Suspicion of any Claims to Represent the Will of the
People
(d) All the above
Ans : d
26) Which state government has given man’s
status to all living organisms and also to river Ganga ?
(a) UP
(b) Uttarakand
( c ) Bihar
(d) Haryana
Ans : b
27)The Supreme Court on September 27,2018 unanimously
struck down Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that makes adultery a
punishable offence for men . In this context, consider the following :
I)”Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person
and a person who is not their spouse”.
II)The Supreme Court judges called Section 497 archaic
and said that it violated Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India.The
bench said that Section 497 was ‘unconstitutional’ as it violated the right to
equality and there was no reason to continue this anymore
III)’Adultery can be ground for civil issues including
dissolution of marriage but it cannot be criminal offence.
IV)Supreme Court held that ‘adultery will remain a ground
for divorce’. But it is no more a
criminal offence attracting upto five years of jail term
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III and IV
(d) I and IV
And : c
28)Sedition was aptly described by Gandhiji “as the
prince of the Indian Penal Code”. Regrettably , it has become the king of the
of the IPC as evidenced by the indiscriminate manner in which it is used.
“Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by
signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring
into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards,
the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment
for life, top which fine may be added , or with imprisonment which may extent
to three years , to which fine may be added or with fine. In this context ,
consider the following :
I)In 1962 in Kedarnath Vs.State of Bihar case, Supreme Court
pronounced that mere criticism of the government or comments on the
administration , however vigorous or pungent or even ill-informed, did not
constitute sedition.
II)The Supreme Court limited the application of Section
124A(Sedition)to acts involving intention or tendency to create disorder, or
disturbance of law and order, or incitement to violence
III)Therefore, incitement to violence is the essential
ingredient of the offence of section (emphasis added)
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) All the above
(d) None of these
And : c
29)Who among the
following became the Prime Minister of India without
being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V.P. Singh
4. Chandrashekhar
5. P.V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2 only
(d) 4 only
Ans: d
30) The Bill relating Fugitive Economic Offenders, allows for a person to be declared as a
fugitive economic offender (FEO) if: (i) an arrest warrant has been issued
against him for any specified offences where the value involved is over Rs 100
crore, and (ii) he has left the country and refuses to return to face
prosecution.
In this
context, consider the following:
I)To declare a person an FEO, an application will be
filed in a Special Court (designated under the Prevention of Money-Laundering
Act, 2002) containing details of the properties to be confiscated, and any
information about the person’s whereabouts.
II)The Special Court will require the person to appear at
a specified place at least six weeks from issue of notice. Proceedings
will be terminated if the person appears.
III)The Bill allows authorities to provisionally attach properties
of an accused, while the application is pending before the Special Court.
IV)Upon declaration as an FEO, properties of a person may be
confiscated and vested in the central government, free of encumbrances (rights
and claims in the property). Further, the FEO or any company associated
with him may be barred from filing or defending civil claims.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
31)The Muslim Women
(Protection of Rights on Marriage) Ordinance, 2018 was promulgated on September
19, 2018.[ Note that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill,
2018 was introduced and passed in Lok Sabha on December 28, 2017 and is pending in Rajya Sabha. ]
In this context, consider the following:
I)The Ordinance makes
all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void
(i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal. It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat
or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in
instant and irrevocable divorce.
II) Talaq-e-biddat
refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the
word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an
instant and irrevocable divorce.
III) The Bill makes
declaration of talaq a cognizable and non-bailable
offence. (A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may
arrest an accused person without warrant.) A husband declaring talaq can
be imprisoned for up to three years along with a fine.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
NOTE: The President of India on the 21st February,
2019 has promulgated the following
Ordinance:
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on
Marriage) Second Ordinance, 2019 (Ord. 4 of
2019).The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance,
2019 has been promulgated to give continued effect to the provisions brought in
by the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Ordinance, 2019. This
Ordinance, inter alia, declares the practice of triple talaq to be
void and illegal and also to make it an offence punishable with imprisonment up
to three years and fine.
The
Ordinance will protect the rights of married Muslim women and deter the
practice of divorce by triple talaq (i.e., talaq –e –biddat). It also provides
for payment of subsistence allowance and custody of minor children.
32)Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the
President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances when either of the
two Houses of Parliament is not in session. Hence, it is not possible for the
ordinances to be issued in the Parliament.The fundamental reason for bestowing
the executive with the power to issue ordinance according to Pandit HNKunzru
(involved in framing the Indian Constitution), was “to deal with situations
where an emergency in the country necessitated urgent action.”
An ordinance may be concerned with any subject
that the Parliament has the power to legislate on and also has the same
limitations as the Parliament to legislate according to the distribution of
powers between the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. There are three
limitations with regard to the ordinance making power of the executive. In this connection, consider the following :
I) The President can only promulgate an
ordinance when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
II) The President cannot promulgate an
ordinance unless he is satisfied that there are circumstances that require
taking ‘immediate action’.
III) Ordinances must be approved by Parliament
within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate. They will also
cease to operate in case resolutions disapproving the ordinance are passed by
both the Houses.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
33)Which of the
following is correct ?
a)An ordinance has to be
converted into legislation within 6 weeks (42 days) of commencement of the
Parliament session, or else it will lapse.
b)An ordinance can be
re-promulgated only thrice. The governor of a state can also issue ordinances
under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, when the state legislative
assembly is not in session.
c)There have been
various important discussions on the ordinance making power of the President
and Governor. Significant questions have been asked on the judicial review of
the ordinance making powers of the executive; the necessity for ‘immediate
action’ while promulgating an ordinance and the granting of ordinance making
powers to the executive, given the principle of separation of powers
d)All the above
Ans : d
34)Data
protection refers to policies and procedures seeking to minimise intrusion into
the privacy of an individual caused by collection and usage of their personal
data.
In this context, consider the following:
I)In
India, usage of personal data or information of citizens is regulated by the
Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and
Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011, under Section 43A of the
Information Technology Act, 2000.
II) The Rules define personal information of an individual as any
information which may be used to identify them.
III)They hold
the body corporate (who is using the data) liable for compensating the
individual, in case of any negligence in maintaining security standards while
dealing with the data.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
35) Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is a set of instructions found in
a cell. These instructions are used for the growth and development of an
organism. The DNA of a person is unique, and variation in the sequence of
DNA can be used to match individuals and identify them. DNA technology,
therefore allows for accurate establishment of an individual’s identity.
In this context, consider the following:
I)DNA-based technology can be used to aid criminal
investigations. For example, the identity of a criminal offender may be
determined by matching DNA found at the crime scene with the DNA of a
suspect. In addition, DNA-based technology helps in identification of
victims in the event of terrorist attacks or natural disasters such as
earthquakes. For example, DNA technology has been used to identify
victims of terrorist attacks on the World Trade Centre in 2001, and disasters
such as the Asian tsunami in 2004. Further, DNA profiling can be used in
civil matters, such as parentage related disputes.
II)Currently, the use of DNA technology for identification of
individuals is not regulated. In the past, several expert groups
including the Law Commission, have looked at the use and regulation of DNA
technology. The Commission submitted its report as well as a draft Bill
in July 2017.
III)In this context, the DNA Technology (Use and Application)
Regulation Bill, 2018 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 9, 2018. Lok
Sabha passed it.
IV)The Bill regulates the use of DNA technology for the purpose of
identification of persons in criminal and civil matters.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
36) A precise definition of ‘Office of Profit’ is necessary based on the broad
principle of separation of powers of legislature and executive. The practice of
giving blanket exemption to Ministers to hold Office of Profit should be
continued .
In this context, consider the following
I)Article 102(1)(a) says
a person shall be disqualified from being a member of either House of
Parliament if he holds any office of profit , among other grounds
II)Article 103 says if a question arises whether a member
has incurred such disqualification, it will be referred to the President’s
decision. The President shall obtain the Election Commission’s opinion and act
accordingly
III) Article 191(1) contains a similar provision for MLAs
and MLCs in the States. Legislators in Delhi are covered by corresponding
provisions in the Government National Capital Territory Act, 1991
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,
(d) None of these
And : c
37)About three decades ago, the Central Government had
four types of ministers: Cabinet, State, Deputy and parliamentary secretary.
The last one is done away with. But the State Governments borrowed and retained
the concept from there to share the spoils of power with its MLAs.
To decide Office of profit, which elements/aspects are to be considered ?
I) Whether the holder drew any remuneration
II) Whether the body in which an office was held
exercised executive,legislative or judicial powers
III))Whether such a body enabled the holder to wield
influence by way of patronage
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,
(d) None of these
And : c
38) Governor’s
rule was imposed in Jammu & Kashmir
on June 20, 2018. Consider the
following :
I) J&K Legislative Assembly was kept under suspended
animation on June 20, 2018
II)J&K Governor took charge of the administration of
the state immediately after getting President’s approval for the imposition
of Governor’s rule in J&K
III)Senior bureaucrat was appointed as Advisor to the
Governor
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
39) Who described the Indian Constitution as
‘co-operative federalism’ ?
a)Granville Austin
b)Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Dhundhu Pant
d) Lord Irwin
Ans: a
40) In 2018-19, Maharastra government gave its approval to 16%
reservation for Maratha community and 5 % reservation for 50 bakcward Muslim
communities in jobs and education in the state (in 2014). Consider the
following :
I)The move will benefit nearly 43% of the state’s
population i.e., 32% Marathas and 10.6% Muslim population
II)With this the total reservation percentage in the
state has gone up to 73%
III)Cabinet also gave an approval for creating a new
category called ‘economically and socially backward category (ESBC)
iv)The reservations will not be applicable to the creamy
layer of the society
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
41) ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ applies in which of the
following, as per Constitution of India ?
a) President of India appointment
b) State Governor’s appointment
c) Supreme Court Chief Justice appointment
d) High Court Chief Justice appointment
Ans : b
41)In the committee for the selection of CBI director
post, who will be in the committee ?
I) PM of India
II)Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India or a Judge
nominated by SCI Chief Justice
III)Single largest oppositon party leader in Lok
Sabha
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
42)According to which article of Constitution of India, a
person cannot be punished two times for the same crime ?
a)Article 20(2)
b)Article 14
c)Article 19
d) Article 25
Ans : a
43)Who is the chairman of the States Reorganisation
Commission appointed in 1953 December ?
a)Fazal Ali
b)HN Kunzru
c)KN Phanikkar
d) Gowthu Lachanna
Ans : a
44)According to Acquisition of Certain Area at Ayodhya
Act, 1993, how many acres were taken by central government ?
a)67.70
b)0.313
c)42
d)50
Ans : a
45)Which state decided to implement Universal Basic
Income Scheme ?
a)Sikkim
b)Rajasthan
c)Haryana
d)Delhi
Ans : a
46)Angel Tax is imposed on which of the following ?
a) Start Ups
b) Banks
c) Insurance Companies
d) None of these
Ans : a
47)Praveen Sood is the Director for which of the
following ?
a)CBI
b)ED
c)CRPF
d)CISF
Ans : a
48)Who is appointed according to Section 4A(1) Delhi
Special Police Establishment Act 1946 ?
a) UPSC Chairman
‘b)Director, CBI appointment selection committee
c) Railway Board Chairman
d)RBI Governor
Ans : b
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
49) Accoding to amendment to the Constitution of
India, 10% reservation is provided to the economically weaker sections (EWS) in
the society and belonging to upper
castes, people in India ?
a)100
b)129 (Constitutional Amendment) 2019
c) 120
d) 122
Ans : b
50) On December 16,2018 President’s rule is imposed in
J&K state. Consider the following :
I)After completing the 6months period of Governor’s rule
imposition
II)On the recommendation of Shri Satyapal Malik, Governor
of J&K, for imposition of President’s rule
II)J&K assembly is cancelled on 21.11.2018. All the
powers of J&K Legislative Assembly can be exercised by President of India ,
but within the powers of Parliament
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
51) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trial (VVPAT). Consider
the following :
I)After voting on EVM, on the screen of VVPAT (printer
screen), party symbol is visible. It is visible only for 7 seconds
II)Afterwards, a slip is dropped in the box of VVPAT
III)Whenever it is required, those slips will be counted
for cross checking purpose
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
54) Which Act permitted, the central government
vigilance/police officers to inspect the data recorded in the personal
computers of the people?
a)Section 69(1) Information Technology Act, 2000
b) Indian Contract Act
c)Negotiable Instruments Act
d)Trade Union Act
Ans : a
55) DNA Technology (Use and application)Regulation Bill (Now
it became Act).Consider the following ?
I)National DNA Bank can be set up
II) To know the DNA, from a person , his / his blood,hair,skin
cells and other samples from the body can be collected
III)DNA information/data can be used in the criminal investigation and civil cases
settlement
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
56) Consider the following :
I)Telangana State High Court first Chief Justice: Justice
Thottathil B.Radhakrishnan
II)Andhra Pradesh State High Court First Chief Justice :
(Acting): Justice C.Praveen Kumar
III) Oath for the High Court Chief Justices is
administered by : Governor
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
57) Triple Talaq is declared as unconstitutional. In a
judgement that resulted in empowerment of millions of Muslim women in the
country, the Supreme Court declared the practice of instant Triple Talaq
unconstitutional. The bench struck it down by a 3:2 majaority. Consider the following :
I) The judgement was made after 35-yer old Shayara Bano
challenged the practice in 2016, a year after he husband of 15 years divorced
her through triple talaq.
II)As per the ruling in the case, the apex court had
directed the legislature to come up with a Law so that the judgement given by
it can be made stone-carved and could be objectively implemented.
III) In the Winter session of the parliament, Triple
Talaq Bill has already been passed through Lok Sabha and government is looking
out for a mutual consensus for it to be passed also in Rajya Sabha considering
That it is a minority in the upper house ( situation in February, 2018)
IV) Though there are also demands that it be again sent
to the Standing Committee to make the required changes as giving 3 year prison
sentence to those violating it, as per the muslim clergy, could be misused by
the State
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
58)Delhi , deemed to be the most polluted city in the
world, had a relatively cleaner Diwali ( read 2017 year), thanks to the apex
court’s ban on sale of firecrackers in the National Capital Region (NCR).
Consider the following :
I) In a ruling given
in early October,2017 the SC also temporarily suspended licences handed over by
Delhi Police permitting the sale of Diwali crackers in Delhi and within NCR
II)With a toxic haze choking the city dwellers post
Diwali, Delhi’s pollutant levels rose to dangerous levels in the past few years
III)In this context, the SC’s rather eco-friendly verdict
was a huge step in the right direction
IV)It paved way for many megacities like Bengaluru, which
is now following the footsteps to introduce various measures to ensure
pollutant free environs
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
59) ‘The Right to Privacy’ is protected as an intrinsic
part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part
of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution of India’. Consider
the following :
I)Assam is the only State in India that prepared an NRC
in 1951
II)The NRC, 1951 is updated in Assam with the names of
applicants whose names appear in 1951,1951 or any electoral rolls of the State
upto midnight of March 24,1971 and their descendants and all Indian
citizens,including their children and descendants who have moved to Assam post
March 24,2971.
III) Under the procedures adopted , one has to link
oneself to a family member whose name had appeared either in the NRC of 1951 ,
or to any of the State’s electoral rolls prepared till 1971
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
60) The Citizenship Act, 1955: Apart from Citizenship by
Birth and Citizenship by Descent, the act also has other provisions for having
Indian citizenship. Consider the following :
I)Citizenship by registration and citizen by
naturalization
II)The central government may on an application made in
this behalf , register as a citizen of India any person not being an illegal
migrant who is not already such citizen by virtue of the Constitution or any
other provisions of Citizenship Act,1955
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I only
(d) None of these
And : b
61) In the context of National Register of Citizen for
Assam, consider the following :
I)Assam government has been ordered by the Supreme Court
to complete the first round of the citizenship exercise by December 31,
2017(initially told), and come up with a
list that could identify residents of Assam who have been able to establish
their citizenship and the rest
II)The cut-off date is 1971 - anyone who came before that and their
progenies are considered Indian; anyone after that is considered illegal or a
foreigner
III)Families have to prove they are descendants of a
legal, pre-1971 resident of Assam
IV)The updated citizenship register was one of the
premises made in the 1985 Assam Accord that wanted illegal immigrants from
Bangladesh identified and pushed back
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III,IV
(d) None of these
And : c
62)Who is appointed as Chief Information Commissioner of
India ?
a)Y K Sinha
b)Vanaja N Sarna
c)N K Gupta
d)Heralal Samaria
Ans : d
63) In India how many High Courts are there ?
a)25
b)14
c)15
d)23
Ans : a
64) Rajya Sabha started in 1952.Consider the following :
I)Upto now 32 persons worked as Chairmen of Rajya Sabha
II) 12 persons worked as Deputy Chairmen (out of them 3
were women). Smt . Pratibha Patil who worked as Deputy Chairperson, later
worked as President of India
III) 6 Persons who worked as Chairmen, later became
Presidents of India ( among them Shri K R Narayanan is there )
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
65)In the beginning of every year, USA President delivers
State of the Union (SOTO) lecture. Generally who participates in the
lecture. Consider the following :
I)Senate Members
II)House of Representative members
III) House Speaker
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
66) As per the instructions of Supreme Court of India,
with the support of Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority
, central government decided to
supply agricultural machinery like happy seeder, straw chopper , zero till drill
etc., to farmers of which states ?
a)Punjab
b)Haryana
c)UP
d) All the above
Ans : d
67)Who is the chairman of 15th Finance
Commission ?
a)Shaktikantha
Das
b)N K Singh
c)Aroop Singh
d)Ramesh Chand
Ans : b (XVI Finance Commission Chairman :Aravind Panagariya)
68)In place of which of the following, Financial Resolution
& Deposit Insurance Bill (2017) was proposed ?
a) DICGC
b)IFCI
c)ICICI
d) UTI
Ans : a
69)Which article of the Constitution of India, informs
that Chief Election Commissioner should not be removed arbitrarily ?
a) Article 324 (5)
b) Article 280
c) Article 356
d)Article 352
Ans : a
70) In Sikkim Assembly seats are increased from 32 to 40.
As per proposal, increased seats will be allocated to whom ?
a)Limboo & Tamang community
b)Bhutia and Lepchas
c)Sanghas
d) All the above
Ans : d
71)Which state released the state symbol with Ashoka
Chakra ?
a)Bihar
b)West Bengal
c)UP
d) Odisha
Ans : b
72)Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India , monthly
salary will be increased to ?
a)Rs.2.25 Lakhs
b)Rs.2.8 Lakhs
c)Rs.2.5 Lakhs
d) Rs. 2 lakhs
Ans : b (Present Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India : D.Y.Chandrachud)
73)RERA, GST Binami
Property Act, Aadhaar linking etc., are actions taken to bring
transparency in which sector ?
a)Housing/Real Estate
b)Shipping
c)Airways
d) None of these
Ans : a
74)As per the updated NRC first draft list , released in
the midnight of December 17, 2017, out of 3.29 crore applicants, how many
people’s names are listed in the first
draft ?
a)1.90 crores
b)1 crore
c)50 lakhs
d)25 lakhs
Ans : a
75)Who is India’s new foreign secretary ?
a)Vinay Mohan Kwatra
b)Nirupama Rao
c)Diksha Basu
d) Ursula Vernon
Ans : a
76)When the Prevention Insults to National Honour Act,
was framed ? (It is relating to singing
of National Anthem , respect to it )
a)1971
b)1975
c)1969
d)1947
Ans : a
77)Who was the chairman of the committee to study singing
of National Anhem in Cinema halls, public places ?
a)BR Sarma
b)Hasmukh Adhia
c)Girish Karnad
d)Urjit Patel
Ans : a
78)Which of the following are correct about the 52
seconds duration National Anthem played / screened in Cinema Halls ?
a)When exhibited all should stand
b)In the case of handicapped, if they cannot stand , they
are exempted
c)Exhibiting choice is given to the cinema halls, by
Supreme Court of India
d) All the above
Ans : d
79)It was proposed to issue Orange colour jacket
passports for whom ?
a)ECR passports
b)ECNR passports
c)Diplomatic passports
d) None of these
Ans : a
80) ‘Role of Governors as agents of change in the society’
report was submitted to President of India. This was prepared by a committee of
governors. In this committee who were there ?
a)ESL Narasimhan
b) Banwarilal
c) Ram Naik
d) All the above
Ans : d
81)Who are the women judges in the Supreme Court of India
?
a) Justice Hima Kohli
b) Justice Bela Trivedi
c) Justice B.V.Nagarathna
d) All the above
Ans : d
82) Earlier MPs monthly salary was how much ?
a) Basic salary : Rs.50,000/-
b)Constituency Allowance: Rs.45,000/-
c)Daily allowance RS.2,000/- when parliamentary sessions
are going on
d) All the above ( it was proposed to increase these )
Ans : d (Now it is Rs. 2.7 Lakh per month)
83)2017-18 Economic Survey Report cover page was printed
in which colour ?
a) Pink
b)Yellow
c)Black
d) Blue
Ans : a
84) Impeachment Supreme Court of India Chief
Justice/Justices is mentioned in which article of the Constitution of India ?
a)124(4)
b)224
c)225
d)325
Ans : a
85)Who is the chief minister of Tripura ?
a)Sachindralal Singh
b)Manik Saha
c)Nripen Chakraborti
d) Sudheer Ranjar Majumdar
Ans : b
86)Which of the following was correct (in 2019) ?
a)Meghalaya :
Kanrad Kongal Sangma
b)Nagaland :
Nie Phu Rio
c)Assam : Sarbanand Sonowal
d) All the above
Ans: d
87)Which of the following came in news, in connection
with PNB scam ?
a) LoU (Letter of Undertaking )
b)LIBOR (London Interbank offered rate )
c) NOSTRO ( In Latin language, the meaning is ‘our
account) (Our account in your bank (foreign)books)
d) All the above
Ans : d
88)Which of the following is correct ?
a) NPP: 19 MLAs (BJP joined with this party, to form
government)
b)UDP: 6 MLAs
c)HSPDP: 2 MLAs
d) All the above (Parties in Meghalaya, who won seats in
Assembly elections in 2019)
Ans : d
89) Which of the following is correct (in 2019) ?
a)NPF: 26 MLAs
b)NDPP:30 MLAs (BJP joined with this party to form
government)
c)NPP:2 MLAs
d) All the above (parties in Nagaland , seats won in
Assembly elections)
Ans : d
90) Consider the following :
I)Section 6A of Inter State Water Disputes Act prescribes
to set up
Water Disputes Settlement Scheme
II)Bhakra Beas Management Board (controls all properties,
dam under it, belonging to Beas)
III)Narmada Control Authority : (controls all properties,
dams in MP, Gujarat belonging to Narmada river )
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
91)In the Cauvery Management Board who were there ?
a) 3 whole time members (central government appoints)
b)Riperian states (appoint its representatives)
c)It is an interstate forum , which consists of technical
experts
d) All the above
Ans : d
92) As per data in April, 2018, Cauvery river water ( 740
tmcft) will be distributed in which method , as Supreme Court of India
judgement ?
a) Karnataka : 284.75 ( 270 +14.75) tmcft
b)Tamilnadu : 404.25 (419 – 14.75) tmcft
c) Kerala : 30 tmcft
d) All the above
Ans : d ( Please
check up , if any changes are there )
93) Who was the Chairman of National Judicial Pay
Commission in 2019 ?
a)Justice R.Basant
b)Justice P .Venkatrama Reddy
c) VK Gupta
d)
S.Rangarajan
Ans : b
94) As per which Article in the Constitution of India,
state Governor can grant mercy to the criminals ?
a) Article 161
b) Article 72
c) Article 52
d) Article 14
Ans : a
95)As per which section of Representation of People’s Act
1951, a person can contest in elections from two constituencies ?
a) Section 5
b) Section 33 (7)
c) Section 2
d) Section 10
Ans : b
96)Section 2(g) of Aadhaar Act mentioned which of the
following are mentioned as biometric examples?
a) Photograph
b)Fingerprint
c)Iris scan ; or any other biological characteristics
d) All the above
Ans : d
97)Which of the following is correct ?
a) to monitor TV channels : Cable Television Networks
Rules
b)to monitor print media : Press Council of India
c)IDEX scheme : Innovation for Defence Excellency Scheme
d) All the above
Ans : d
98) In accordance with other nations, to measure India’s
economic growth 2018, RBI changed to which method ?
a) GVA
b) GDP
c)IIP
d)WPI
Ans : b
99)Who is the chairman of Banks Board Bureau (BBB) ?
a) Bhanu Pratap Sarma
b)Vedika Bhandarkar
c)P.Pradeep Kumar
d) Pradeep Sha
Ans : a
100)Central Government requested 15th Finance Commission
to consider which aspects into account to recommend the grant of finances/funds
to the states?
a) Actions taken
by states , to control population growth (2011 population census maybe,
as per one comment )
b)Constitution of India implementation
c)Peace in the States
d)Industrial development in the states
Ans : a
101)Chief Justice
of Supreme Court of India can be described as what ?
a) in him there is an institution
b) Ge us ‘Master of Roaster ‘
c) A person with not a single iota of doubt ,even to
imagine
d) All the above ( as per one of the judgements)
Ans : d
102)AFSPA, 1958 completely removed in which state (Status in the year 2019) ?
a)Nagaland
b)J&K
c)Arunachal Pradesh
d)Meghalaya
Ans : d
103) Ranbir Penal Code was in which state/UT ?
a) Delhi
b)J&K
c)Punjab
d) Rajasthan
Ans : b
104) In Karnataka elections could be conducted for 222
Assembly seats, out of 224 assembly seats. Election was postponed for which
constituencies ?
a) Jayanagar Segment & Raja Rajeswari Nagar
b)Rama Devara Betta
c) Mangaluru city
d) None of these
Ans : a
105) Give details about Hyderabad-Karnataka, which is
enjoying Special Status as per Article 371(J) of Constitution of India ?
a)North : Krishna river;
South: Tungabhadra
b)Before independence it was ruled by Nizam ( except
Ballary )
c) Economic – Social backwardness is high
d) All the above
Ans : d
106) For the impeachment of Judges, which act is there ?
a)Judges (Enquries) Act, 1968
b)POTA
c)TADA
d)MCOCA
Ans : a
107)After conducting Assembly elections in Karnataka in
2018, in the Assembly each party has how many seats ?
a)BJP: 104
b)Congress(I) : 80
c) JD(S): 37 & others : 3
d)All the above (
in Karnataka Assembly 224 seats are there )
Ans: d
108) Consider the following :
I) The constitution of India empowers Governor to appoint
a Chief Minister but remains silent on the issue of his/her role in case of a
fractured mandate
II) As a result , it is entirely the governor’s
discretion whom to call for government formation when there is no clear
majority to a single political party or a coalition of the pre-poll alliance
parties
III)”The governor, while going through the process of
selection , he should select a leader
who , inhis judgement , is most likely to command a majority in the assembly. The governor’s subjective judgement will play
an important role”. Sarkaria Commission report
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
109) Consider the following :
I)BS Yedyurappa of BJP has sworn in as the 25h (in person) Chief Minister of the Karnataka
on May 17, 2018
II) Kumaraswamy was invited by Governor to take the reins
of power after 3 day BJP government collapsed and Yedyurappa unable to muster
the required number for majority, stepping down as CM without facing the floor
test in the state assembly
III)JDS leader sworn in as Chief Minister for the second
time in 12 years
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
110) Consider the following :
I) Supreme Court’s 4 most senior judges, including
Justice Gogoi called a press conference in January, 2018 and criticized Justice
Misra on various issues, especially the manner of allocation of cases to
certain benches
II) Justices J.Chelameswar, Madan B Lokur and Kurian
Joseph were the others who addressed the press conference, perhaps a first in
the history of the Indian judiciary
III) All four judges said, “that they failed to persuade
CJI that certain things are not in order and there CJI should take remedial
measures. Unfortunately our efforts failed. And all four of us are convinced
that democracy is at stake and many things have happened in the recent
past. “
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given
below:
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
( c ) I,II,III
(d) None of these
And : c
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