CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1.
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by
article 19 can be suspended?
1.
External Aggression.
2.
Internal Emergency.
3.
When Martial Law is in force.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
2.
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in
India.
1.
Right to Education.
2.
Right to Information.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
3.
Article 21 declares that –
“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except
according to procedure established by law.”
The protection under
article 21 is:
1. Against arbitrary
legislative action.
2. Against arbitrary
executive action.
3. Both A & B.
4. None.
4.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1.
Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article
19 (1) of the constitution.
2.
Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
5.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of
the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t article 32.
1.
Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2.
Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of
any of the FR.
Correct statement/s
is/are:
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None
6.
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except
according to procedure established by law.”
1.
Right to speedy trial.
2.
Right against delayed execution.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None
7.
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative
authorities?
1. Prohibition,
Certiorari & Mandamus.
2. Certiorari &
Mandamus.
3. Prohibition &
Mandamus.
4. Prohibition &
Certiorari.
8.
The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally
non – enforceable because:
1.
The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to
implement them.
2.
There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand
in the way of implementation.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None
9.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
1.
The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2.
The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3.
The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
10. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct.
1.
Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive
principles.
2.
The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing
the directive principles.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
11. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill.
1.
Prior permission of President is required before introducing the
constitutional amendment bill in parliament.
2.
President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both
houses.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None
12. The emoluments,
allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
1. A Constitutional
Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
2. A Constitutional
Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
3. A Constitutional
Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half
of the state legislatures.
4. By a normal
legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
13. Which of the
following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution.
1.
Supremacy of the Constitution.
2.
Rigid Constitution.
3.
Independent Judiciary.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
14. Which of the
following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
1.
In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the
executive power rests with the states.
2.
In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the
legislative power rests with the centre.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
15. Which of the
following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
1.
During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can
give direction to a state on any matter.
2.
During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can
modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the
states.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
16. Which of the
following statements are correct.
1.
The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the
Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2.
The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but
can be removed only by the President.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
17. Which of the
following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.
1. Resolution approving
& disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either
house of parliament by a special majority.
2. Resolution approving
& disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either
house of parliament by a simple majority.
3. Resolution
disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of
parliament by a simple majority.
4. None of these.
18. Which of the
following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state
(Article 356).
1.
Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a
majority.
2.
Serious maladministration in the state.
3.
Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
19. Which of the
following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial
Emergency (Article 360).
1.
It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the
parliament for every six months.
2.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is
to be passed by either house of parliament by simple majority.
3.
The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and
allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
20. The Electoral College
for President’s election consist of:
1.
Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
2.
Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
3.
Elected members of all Union Territories.
1. 1.
2. 2 & 3.
3. 1 & 2.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
21. When the offices of
both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –
1. The members of Lok
Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
2. The senior most
willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
3. The President
appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
4. The Deputy Chairman
of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.
22. With Regard to
Constitutional Amendment Bill –
1. The President can
reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
2. The President cannot
reject the bill but can return the bill.
3. The President can
neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
4. The President can
either reject the bill or return the bill.
23. The correct
statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are -
1.
The President cannot promulgate
an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2.
The President cannot promulgate
an ordinance to amend the constitution.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
24. The Vice President
can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the
following manner?
1. She/he can be
impeached in similar manner as President.
2. A Resolution of Rajya
Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
3. A Resolution of Rajya
Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
4. A Resolution of Rajya
Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
25. The ‘Council of
Ministers’ does not consist of:
1.
Deputy Ministers.
2.
Parliamentary Secretaries.
3.
Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission.
1. 1, 2 & 3.
2. 2 only.
3. 3 only.
4. None of these.
26. The Representatives
of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1.
The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2.
The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3.
The system of proportional representation by single transferrable
vote.
4.
The system of proportional representation by List.
1. 1 & 3.
2. 1 & 4.
3. 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 4.
27. Which of the
following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a
member of parliament:
1.
If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must
be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2.
He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing
social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3.
He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works
or services.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2, & 3.
4. None of these.
28. Which of the
following statements are correct.
1.
If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes
vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2.
If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise
his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
29. The office of the
‘Whip’ is mentioned in:
1. Constitution of
India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. In a separate
Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.
30. The office of the
Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:
1. Constitution of
India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. A separate
Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.
31. When the Lok Sabha is
Dissolved:
1.
A bill passed by Lok Sabha pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
2.
A bill pending in Rajya Sabha & not passed by Lok Sabha does
not lapse.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
32. A minister who is not
a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a
member of either house of parliament):
1. Can participate in
the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.
2. Can participate in
the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
3. Can participate in
the proceedings of either house of parliament.
4. Cannot participate
till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.
33. Consider the
following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:
1.
Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
2.
Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3.
Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
4.
Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
The correct statements
is/are:
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 3 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1 & 4 only.
34. Which of the
following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:
1.
Censure Motion.
2.
Cut Motion.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
35. The decision whether
a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:
1.
Any court of law.
2.
Lok Sabha.
3.
President of India.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 2 only.
4. None of these.
36. Which of the
following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:
1.
Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
2.
Defeat of a money bill.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
37. Which of the
following is/are correct:
1.
A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2.
A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
3.
All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recommendation
of the President.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of these.
38. Which of the
following Expenditure is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund
of India:
1.
Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice President.
2.
Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme
Court & high court.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
39. Which of the
following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a person to
be appointed as the Governor of a state:
1.
He should be a citizen of India.
2.
Must have completed the age of 35 years.
3.
He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.
40. Which of the
following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution”
1.
President.
2.
Governor.
3.
Chief Justice of India.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.
41. Which of the
following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers
of a state.
1.
Resignation by Chief Minister.
2.
Death of Chief Minister.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
42. Which of the
following statements are correct:
1.
President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community
if not adequately represented in LS.
2.
Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community
if not adequately represented in LA.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
43. When in a bicameral
legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected
by the council:
1. Will be considered in
a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
2. The assembly can
override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without
any amendments.
3. The council does not
have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the
bill is deemed to have passed.
4. The bill ends and
becomes dead.
44. Chief Justice of High
court is appointed by:
1. The President after
consultation with the CJI.
2. The President after
consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
3. The Governor on the
recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
4. The President after
consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very
senior SC judges headed by CJI.
45. Which of the
following statements are correct:
1.
The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its
territorial jurisdiction.
2.
An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly
against the decision of a tribunal.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
46. Correct statements
with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:
1.
The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village,
intermediate and district levels.
2.
Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the
recommendation of the State Legislature.
3.
The 73rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states
except J&K.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 3 only.
47. Corrects statement/s
with regard to UTs is/are:
1.
The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the
UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2.
The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
48. Corrects statement/s
with regard to Election Commission is/are:
1.
The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from
any further appointment by the government.
2.
The election commission is not concerned with the elections to
state legislatures, for this the constitution provides for a separate state
election commission.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
49. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service
Commission (JSPSC):
1.
President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state
legislatures concerned.
2.
JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the
powers of a SPSC.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
50. Which of the
following are quasi judicial bodies:
1.
Finance Commission.
2.
Central Vigilance Commission
3.
National Human Rights Commission.
4.
Central Information Commission.
5.
Competition Commission of India.
6.
Union Public Service Commission.
7.
National Commission for SCs.
1. All except 1, 2 &
6.
2. All except 2, 4 &
6.
3. All except 6.
4. None of the above
options are correct.
51. Which of the
following is/are not the functions of National
Commission for SCs:
1.
To advise on the planning process of socio economic development of
the SCs.
2.
To investigate all matters relating to OBCs.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
52. Which of the
following official/s is/are appointed by the President by Warrant under his
hand and seal.
1.
CAG.
2.
Chairperson of National Commission of SCs.
3.
Attorney General of India.
4.
CVC
1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
53. Which of the
following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:
1.
Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative
assembly.
2.
Contingency funds of India.
3.
Public account of States.
4.
Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5.
Local bodies.
1. 1, 2 & 3 only.
2. 1, 2 & 5 only.
3. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
4. All.
54. Which of the
following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:
1.
He/she is the highest law officer of the country.
2.
He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the
same manner as a judge of the SC.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
55. Which of the
following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:
1.
He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee.
2.
He/she is debarred from private legal practice.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
56. Which is the correct
order for approval of 5 year plans:
A.
Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet – Parliament .
B.
Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC – Parliament .
C.
Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet.
D.
Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC.
57. Which of the
following statements are correct with regard to NHRC.
1.
NHRC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2.
After their tenure Chairman & members are not eligible for
further employment under the central or state government.
3.
Its recommendations are binding on the concerned government or
authority.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
58. Members of selection
committee for the selection of chairman of NHRC consists of:
1.
PM.
2.
Speaker.
3.
Deputy Chairman of RS.
4.
Leaders of the opposition in LS.
5.
Leaders in the opposition in RS.
6.
Chief Justice of India.
7.
Home minister.
8.
Minister of Social Justice & Welfare.
1. All except 7.
2. All except 7 & 8.
3. All except 6 & 8.
4. None of the above
options are correct.
59. Which of the
following statements are correct:
1.
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief
Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election
Commissioner.
2.
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State
Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Justice of High
Court.
3.
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief
Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC.
1. 1 & 3 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
60. Which of the
following articles are correctly matched:
1.
Election Commission – Article 338.
2.
Finance Commission – Article 280.
3.
National Commission for SCs – Article. 324
4.
CAG – Article 148.
5.
Attorney General of India – Article 76.
1. All except 1 & 5.
2. All except 1 & 3.
3. All except 2 & 5.
4. None of the above
options are correct.
61. The Jurisdiction of
CAT extends to:
1.
Secretarial staff of Parliament.
2.
Civilian employees of Defense Services.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
62. My friend described a
tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound
by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall
be guided by principles of natural justice.
He/she is probably
referring to:
1. Central
Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
2. National Green
Tribunal (NGT).
3. He/she is either
referring to CAT or to NGT.
4. He/she is neither
referring to CAT nor to NGT.
63. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct:
1.
Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
2.
Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
64. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct:
1.
If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to
imprisonment for 3 years he cannot contest elections.
2.
A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a
Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha election.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
65. Which of the
following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the
Indian State:
1.
The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2.
No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational
institution maintained by the state.
3.
The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform
Civil Code.
4.
Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its
distinct language.
1. 1, 2, 3 only.
2. 2 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
66. Which of the
following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from
GOI Act 1935:
1.
Office of the Governor.
2.
Emergency Provisions.
3.
Legislative Procedure.
4.
Bicameralism.
5.
Federation with a strong center.
1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
2. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
3. 1 & 2 only.
4. None of the above
options are correct.
67. Which of the
following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble:
1.
Socialist.
2.
Secular.
3.
Republic.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
68. Which of the
following statements are incorrect:
1.
The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
2.
Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3.
Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure
of the constitution.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
69. Which of the
following statement/s is/are correct:
1.
Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending
the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2.
Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country
does not require constitutional amendment.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
70. Which of the
following subject/s is/are enumerated in the concurrent list:
1.
Actionable wrongs.
2.
Education.
3.
Protection of wild Animals and Birds.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.
71. Article 14 says that the state
shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of
laws within the territory of India. Which of the following statements
is/are true with regard to article 14.
1.
Equality before the law is a negative concept whereas equal
protection of law is a positive concept.
2.
The concept of equality before the law is of British origin
whereas equal protection of law is of American origin.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
72. Which of the
following statements is/are true:
1.
High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
2.
Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is
wider than that of a High Court.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
73. Which of the
following statement with regard to Directive Principles is/are correct:
1.
Courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive
Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
2.
Courts can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was
enacted to give effect to a directive.
1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.
74. Which of the
following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.
1.
Second Schedule.
2.
Fifth Schedule.
3.
Sixth Schedule
4.
Seventh Schedule.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.
75. In which of the
following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state
list.
1.
During National Emergency.
2.
During Presidents Rule.
3.
To Implement International Agreements.
1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.
76. Article 358 & 359
describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of
the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.
1.
Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and
not in the case of Internal emergency.
2.
Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal
emergency.
3.
Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration
of emergency.
4.
Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may
extend to entire country or part of it.
1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1, 2 & 3 only.
3. 2, 3 & 4 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
77. Choose the correct
statements from below:
1. The Regulating Act of
1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company.
2. The Pitt’s India Act
setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
3. The Charter Act of
1833 first recognized the company’s territories in India as British
possessions.
4. Pitt’s India Act
created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.
1. Only a,b,c is
correct.
2. Only a,c,d is
correct.
3. Only a,d is correct.
4. All are correct.
78. Correct statement
1. The Pitt’s India Act
created Board of Control to manage political affairs.
2. The Pitt’s India Act
created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
79. Choose the correct
answer
1. Charter Act of 1833
created the post Governor General of India.
2. Charter Act, 1833
deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
3. Charter Act, 1853
introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
4. Macaulay Committee on
the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police
Act,1861.
1. Only a,b is correct.
2. Only a,c is correct.
3. Only a,b,c is
correct.
4. a,b,c,d is correct.
80. The 15 member Council
of India was setup under which act?
1. Indian Councils
Act,1861
2. Indian Councils Act,
1892
3. Government of India
Act,1858.
4. Indian Councils
Act,1909
81. The first person to
be inducted into the Viceroy’s Executive Council was:
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Sachichidanand Sinha
3. Satyendra Prasad
Sinha
4. Satyendranath Tagore
82. Correct Statement?
1. The Minto-Morley
reforms were enacted through the Indian Councils Act,1919.
2. Lord Morley was the
Secretary of State and Lord Minto was the Viceroy.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
83. correct statement?
1. The Council of India
was formed through the Government of India Act,1858.
2. The Council of India
was abolished through the Government of India Act, 1935.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
84. Correct statement?
1. The Interim
Government members formed in 1946 were members of Viceroy’s Executive Council.
2. The President of the Viceroy’s
Executive Council was the Viceroy and Vice-President of the Council was
Jawaharlal Nehru in the Interim Government.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
85. From which of the
following areas, were members drawn to the Constituent Assembly, as members
drawn from Chief Commissioner’s provinces?
1. Delhi and British
Baluchistan
2. Ajmer-Merwara
3. Coorg
4. All of the above
86. Correct statement?
1. The Constituent
Assembly was a sovereign body.
2. The Constituent
Assembly was a legislative body apart from constitution making body.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
87. Correct Statement?
1. The Constituent
Assembly was chaired by Sachichiadand Sinha when it met as a legislative body.
2. The Constituent
Assembly was chaired by Rajendra Prasad when it met as constitution making
body.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
88. Correct Statement?
1. The Universal
Adult Franchise is guaranteed under the constitution.
2. The 61st amendment
brought the age for voting to 18 years.
3. both correct
4. both wrong
Correct Statement?
0. The 73rd and 74th amendment
brought in changes in the levels of government.
1. From a 2-tier
government, it changed it to a 4-tier government, bringing a new level with
each amendment.
2. both correct
3. both wrong
At the time of enactment of constitution, the provisions which
enabled a secular state were:
0. Preamble, Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Fundamental Rights
and DSP
2. Fundamental Rights
only
3. Directive Principles
of State policy only
The feature of Indian constitution borrowed from South African
constitution is:
0. Procedure established
by law
1. Procedure for
amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members
2. Method of election of
President
3. Joint Sitting of the
Parliament
The words justice in the form of social, economic and political
justice present in the Preamble has been taken from
0. American Revolution
1. French Revolution
2. Russian Revolution
3. None of the above
The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42nd amendment are:
0. Socialist
1. Secular
2. Integrity
3. None of the above
Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution
0. Berubari Union case
1. Kesavananda Bharati
case
2. Golaknath case
3. Minerva Mills case
Correct Statements?
0. Originally the
constitution had 14 languages in the 8th schedule.
1. Currently there are
22 languages with the last amendment being the 92nd amendment.
2. both correct
3. both wrong
Correct Statements?
0. The Ninth Schedule
was added to protect laws and legislations from judicial review.
1. The Supreme Court
held that laws added after April 24h,1973 can be reviewed.
2. both correct
3. both wrong
Correct Statements?
0. Article 2 of the
constitution gives the right to the government to create new states into the
Union of India which are not part of India already.
1. Article 3 gives the
power to the government to change the boundaries of the state within India.
2. both correct
3. both wrong
98. Consider following
statements
1. Chattisgarh was
formed by the Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act.
2. Himachal Pradesh was
first UT to become a State
3. Manipur was the first
to become a UT
choice
1.
Only a and b correct.
2. Only b and c correct.
3. Only a and c correct
4. all correct.
99. Correct Statement
1. The Tenth Schedule
contains provisions for Anti-Defection.
2. Originally the tenth
schedule was formed related to Sikkim but was repealed later after Sikkim was
made a state.
3. Both are correct
4. Both are wrong.
100.
Which of the following states joined India after a referendum of
its people
1. Junagarh
2. Sikkim
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above.
ANSWERS
1.
C
2.
A – RTI available to Indian citizens only.
3.
C
4.
A – SC is under the ambit of RTI.
5.
D – Only President can suspend this right during national
emergency. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
6.
C
7.
B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities,
legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
8.
C
9.
B – FR establishes political democracy.
10. C – Minerva Mills case (1980) – For further
explanation refer Laxmikanth 8.7
11. B
12. A – Second schedule –
Simple majority only.
13. D
14. A – Legislative power
rests with both whereas executive power rests with state.
15. C
16. C
17. D – Resolution
approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of
parliament by a special majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of
emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority.
18. A – Refer Bommai case (1994)
19. B – Once approved by
both the houses of parliament, the financial emergency continues indefinitely
till it is revoked.
20. C – Elected members
of the legislative assemblies of the UT Delhi & Puducherry only.
21. C
22. C
23. B – An ordinance can
alter or amend a tax law however it cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
24. D
25. D – Deputy Chairman
of PC is given Cabinet rank.
26. C – The representatives
of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of
the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral
College for that Union Territory, as the case may be, in accordance with the
system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote. The Electoral College for the National Capital Territory of Delhi
consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, and that
for Puducherry consists of the elected members of the Puducherry Legislative
Assembly.
27. D – All these
criteria are laid down in the Representation of People Act 1951 & Not in
the constitution.
28. C – See Laxmikanth –
Page 22.6 – Double Membership.
29. D
30. C – Refer Laxmikanth
– Page 22.13 – Under the head ‘Whip’.
31. B
32. C – Refer Laxmikanth
– Page 22.15.
33. D
34. B
35. D – Cannot be
questioned by anybody.
36. C
37. B
38. A – Note: There is no
emolument for Vice President – As Chairman of RS, his salaries and allowances
are charged on Consolidated Fund of India. Only the pensions of the Judges of
High Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. A – Governor can
nominate only one.
43. B
44. D
45. A
46. A – 2. The act does
not apply to the states of J&K, Nagaland, Meghalaya, & Mizoram and
certain other areas. 3. SEC can be removed on like manner as a judge of HC.
47. D – 1. This power
also extends to Puducherry & Delhi. 2. Lt. Governor is empowered to
promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly.
48. D
49. D – Parliament can
provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned. JSPC will
be a statutory body and not constitutional.
50. C
51. D – It looks into all
matters related to OBCs and Anglo Indian community too.
52. A – Attorney General
– Pleasure of President.
53. D
54. A
55. A
56. B
57. B – It was created by
the Protection of Human rights Act 1993, Statutory Body. Recommendations are
not binding.
58. C
59. A – The salary,
allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner
are similar to those of the Chief Secretary of State Government.
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. C
65. D
66. C
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. D
71. C
72. C
73. C
74. D
75. D
76. D
77. C) a,d is correct.
78. A.
79. C) a,b,c is correct.
80. c) Government of
India Act,1858.
81. c) Satyendra Prasad
Sinha
82. B) b is only correct.
83. C) Both are correct.
84. Both are correct.
85. d) All of the above.
86. c) Both are correct.
87. B) b is correct.
88. C) Both are correct.
89. A) a is correct
90. b) FR and DSP
91. B
92. c) Russian Revolution
93. d) None of the above
94. b) Kesavananda
Bharathi case
95. C) Both are correct
96. C) Both are correct.
97. C) Both are correct
98. B only B and C
correct.
99. C) Both are correct.
100.
C) Both a & b.
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