CIVIL SERVICES
PRELIMS, 2024
Model Questions (for
GS Paper )
Set No. 17
{Prepared on 22 .5.2024 }
Also useful for
TSPSC GROUP I Prelims 2024
For
Study purpose
Prepared by :Praturi
Potayya Sarma,MA(OU),LLB(OU),PGDIRPM
CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS
NOTE: IMPORTANT POINTS ARE PRINTED IN BOLD LETTERS
1)Consider the following about Climate Change :
1)Climate change is primarily attributed to
disproportionately high cumulative emissions, both historical and high per
capita annual emissions of greenhouse gases (GHGs) of the developed countries.
2)The global nature of the problem makes India one of the
most vulnerable regions despite having contributed only about 4 per cent in the
cumulative global emissions (for the period 1850-2019) and maintaining its per
capita emission at far less than the world average.
3)While India is less responsible for the high stock of
emissions, however, it has consistently engaged in demonstrating global
leadership towards adopting various measures and ensuring a low-emission growth
pathway with a commitment to the net-zero emissions goal by 2070.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
2)Consider the following :
1)India has integrated the development goals with
ambitious climate action goals, be it in the form of augmented solar power
capacity (installed), higher energy saving targeting notified in PAT cycle-VII,
improved green cover facilitated by Green India Mission, among other targeted
Government actions.
2)As part of dedicated efforts to preserve ecosystems, India now has 75 Ramsar sites for wetlands,
in addition to various regulatory and promotional measures to protect and
conserve mangroves.
3)Continued river conservation and rejuvenation efforts
are underway through Namami Gange and National River Conservation Plan (NRCP).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
3)Consider the following :
1)In August 2022, the country updated the Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDCs) in line with the Hon’ble PM’s vision
expressed in the 26th meeting of the Conference of Parties of UNFCCC.
2)In terms of transition to renewable energy sources,
India has already achieved its target of 40 per cent installed electric
capacity from non-fossil fuels ahead of 2030.
3) It has advanced the target to 50 per cent, which shall
also translate to a significant reduction in the average emission rate.
4) The National Hydrogen Mission and Green Hydrogen
Policy have been introduced to enable India to be energy independent by 2047.
5)Its pivotal role is also reflected in India’s Long Term
Low Emissions Development Strategy (LT-LEDS)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
4)Consider the following :
1)The availability of adequate and affordable finance
remains a constraint in India’s climate actions. The country has so far largely
met its requirements from domestic sources only. Finance is a critical input
for its climate actions. Therefore, the country has scaled up its efforts
towards mobilising private capital, including through sovereign green bonds, to
meet climate action goals.
2)A framework for the latter has been issued in
compliance with International Capital Market Association (ICMA) Green Bond Principles (2021).
3)India’s initiatives on the international stage have
been noteworthy. The country has actively engaged in global actions by
championing the formation and strengthening of various intergovernmental
organisations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
5)Consider the following :
1)GHG emissions are the most significant threat to
humanity and the inescapable reality the world faces.
2)Action to reduce carbon emissions and adapt to the
changing climatic conditions are required urgently as the world has already
started to experience its consequences.
3)For instance, it is estimated that by 2030, about 700
million people worldwide will be at risk of displacement by drought alone (U.N.
SDG Portal). Thus, global warming is a reality, and so is climate change. Nor
is there much doubt that human activity is primarily responsible for it this
time, although climate change occurred in the distant past even when Planet
Earth was scarcely populated.
4)Science is not very clear on whether further emission
reduction would necessarily guarantee a stoppage or reversal of global warming.
5)The reason being much carbon dioxide and other GHGs
have already been emitted over the last two and half centuries of
industrialisation-led economic growth in today’s advanced nations, principally
in North America and Europe.
6)The share of developing countries in the stock of GHGs
(usually measured as carbon dioxide equivalent) has been minimal compared to
developed countries. This is corroborated by the Inter-Governmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC), which highlights that the challenges faced due to global
warming are mainly due to cumulative historical and current GHG emissions of
developed countries.
7)The impact of the accumulation would also be
iniquitous, with the developing countries not only bearing the brunt of climate
change but also constrained by their capacity to respond to its challenges.
8)The IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) notes that
high human vulnerability global hotspots are found particularly in West,
Central & East Africa, South Asia, Central, and South America, Small Island
Developing States, and the Arctic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. A
6)Consider the following :
1)“If per capita income growth in the next 40 years
compares with the 40 years just past, vulnerability to climate change should
diminish, and the resources available for adaptation should be greater. I say
this not to minimise concern about climate change but to anticipate whether
developing countries should make sacrifices in their development to minimise
the emission of gases that may change the climate to their disadvantage.
2)Their best defence against climate change may be their
own continued development.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
7)Consider the following :
1)Aiming to reduce their dependence on Russian crude oil
and natural gas, countries in Europe had to switch to coal to keep their homes
warm and well-lit . The behaviour of European nations in 2022, eminently
understandable, demonstrates the return of energy security as a prime
requirement for countries. Therefore, it stands to reason that it would be no
different for developing economies too.
2)Earlier in the year, the OECD and the Social Economics
Lab at Harvard teamed up to understand why policies to address climate change
have been difficult to implement and surveyed over 40,000 respondents across 20
of the world’s most carbon-emitting countries (representing 72 per cent of
global CO2 emissions).
3) The findings were striking . In general, citizens in
developed countries expressed considerable reluctance to change their
lifestyles and habits with respect to driving, flying and eating that would
contribute to reduced emissions.
4)Policies to implement carbon pricing have not been easy
in all European countries. France tried and retreated in 2018. Switzerland’s
proposal was defeated in a referendum in 2021
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
8)Consider the following :
1)As though these challenges are not enough, many experts
also warn of the availability of rare earth elements (REE) and critical
minerals (CM) to be the next geopolitical battleground as crude oil has
been over the last fifty years.
2) As we are aware, REE and CM are essential for
generating renewable energy.
3)The problem is that they are produced in a few countries
and processed in even fewer countries.
4)A globally synchronised energy transition to non-fossil
fuels might be difficult to pull off if adequate REE and CM are not available.
That would leave the fossil fuel-based assets stranded for many countries’
economies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
9)Consider the following :
1)India, considered to be one of the most vulnerable
countries given its long coastline, monsoon-dependent agriculture, and large
agrarian economy, is one of the leading examples of this.
2)It has contributed only 4 per cent (until 2019) to the
cumulative global emissions and its per capita emission is far less than the
world average.
3)The fact that climate change is a global phenomenon and
requires collective efforts has been widely accepted and is the basis of the
commitments in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) and its Paris Agreement.
4)Recognising the differentiated responsibility of
countries (in view of their role in GHG emissions) and the higher developmental
needs of the developing countries, they call for a collective action based on
the principles of equity and Common But Differentiated Responsibility and
Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC).
5)The collective action has translated into NDCs-through
which each country has made a commitment to work towards a collective goal of
keeping temperature rise to below 2° C above pre-industrial levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
10)Consider the following :
1)India has been striving to pursue the goal of
sustainable development.
2) It spearheads one of the most robust climate actions
through its NDCs, which includes an ambitious programme for transitions to
clean energy in the world. Despite the adverse impacts of Covid-19 on the
economy, the country has enhanced its climate ambition manifold and embarked on
a long-term strategy towards a low GHG emission based development.
3)Having set the context, an updated discussion on the issue is given
of climate change from India’s perspective, including a discussion on forests
and their role in mitigating carbon emissions, an approach to transition to
renewable energy and the recently submitted low
emissions development strategy.
4) Further a
discussion on the outcomes of the 27th session of the Conference of Parties
(COP 27), progress made on enabling financing for sustainable development and
India’s role in global efforts towards addressing climate change.
5) Besides this, recent changes in environmental
regulations and other environmental aspects, such as biodiversity and wildlife,
are also discussed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
11)Consider the following :
1)India’s climate vision is integrally linked to its
vision of development that foregrounds the goals of poverty eradication and
guaranteeing basic well-being to all its citizens. Action on addressing climate
action was initiated even before the Paris Agreement came into being.
2) In 2008, India launched the National Action Plan on
Climate Change (NAPCC), establishing eight National Missions, covering several
initiatives and a slew of measures in the area of solar, water, energy
efficiency, forests, sustainable habitat, sustainable agriculture, sustaining
Himalayan ecosystem, capacity building and research and development (R&D)
3)National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC), a
central sector scheme, was initiated in 2015-16 to support adaptation activities
in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the
adverse effects of climate change.
4)NAFCC is implemented in project mode, and to date, 30
projects have been sanctioned in 27 States and UTs with a total project cost of
Rs.847.5 crore. NAFCC supports adaptation action, in, inter alia, agriculture,
water, forestry, livestock, and restoring ecosystems. At present (November
2022), 28 projects are under implementation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
12)Consider the following :
1)Demonstrating higher ambition in its climate action,
the Government of India submitted its updated NDC on August 26, 2022.
2)The new NDC with enhanced targets translates the vision
of the Hon’ble PM expressed through the “Panchamrit” at the UNFCCC
Conference of Parties (COP 26) in Glasgow in November 2021. The vision
mentions of sustainable lifestyles and climate justice to protect the poor and
vulnerable from the adverse impacts of climate change.
3)Aligning with this vision, the share of non-fossil
fuel-based capacity in overall capacity has risen rapidly over time. Including
the large hydro, the share of non-fossil sources in total installed electricity
capacity is estimated to be about 40.4 per cent (on 31.09.2022) compared to
27.3 per cent in 2014-15.
4)This period has seen a sizeable enhancement in the
share of installed electricity capacity in solar and wind energy from 8.9 per
cent in 2014-15 to 25.1 per cent in 2022-23 (April-Sept).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
13)Consider the following :
1)India submitted its first NDC to UNFCCC in October
2015. This was updated in August 2022.
2)The 2015 NDC comprised eight goals, three of which
were quantitative targets to be achieved up to 2030. The three targets included
cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources to reach
40 per cent, reduction in the emissions intensity of GDP by 33 to 35 per cent
compared to 2005 levels, and creation of additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3
billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover
3)Article 4 of the Paris Agreement provides that each
Party shall communicate or update its NDC every five years. Therefore, in
accordance with the aforesaid provision of the Paris Agreement, India submitted
the updates to its first NDC of 2015
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
14)Consider the following :
1)One of the three quantifiable targets of India’s NDC is
to achieve an additional carbon sink of 2.5 billion to 3.0 billion
tonnes through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
2)The forest and tree cover in India has shown a gradual
and steady trend of increase in the last one and a half decades.
3)The country ranks third globally with respect to the
net gain in average annual forest area between 2010 and 2020. This gain is
mainly attributed to the robust framework and policies of the National and
State Governments that have promoted and safeguarded forests.
3)Schemes like the Green India Mission (GIM),
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA),
National Afforestation Programme (NAP), Green Highway Policy - 2015, Policy for
enhancement of Urban Greens, National Agro-forestry Policy, and Sub-Mission on
Agro-forestry (SMAF), etc. are among the most important ones.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. A (Clue:
What is Carbon Sink ?)
15)Consider the following :
1)A robust forest ecosystem is a vital sink of carbon.
2)Forest Survey of India (FSI) assessed the carbon
stock (which is the amount of carbon sequestrated from the atmosphere and
stored in biomass, deadwood, soil, and litter in the forest) in India’s
forests for the first time in 2004 and then biennially since 2011.
3)The Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) estimates the
carbon stock of forests to be about 7,204 million tonnes in 2019 , which is an
increase of 79.4 million tonnes of carbon stock as compared to the estimates of
the previous assessment for 2017. This translates into carbon emissions
sequestrated through forest and tree cover to be 30.1 billion tonnes of CO2
equivalent
4)Among the Indian States, Arunachal Pradesh has the
maximum carbon stock in forests (1023.84 million tonnes), followed by Madhya
Pradesh (609.25 million tonnes).
5)The per-hectare forest carbon stock among different
States/UTs indicates that Jammu & Kashmir is contributing the maximum
per-hectare carbon stock of 173.41 tonnes, followed by Himachal Pradesh (167.0
tonnes), Sikkim (166.2 tonnes) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (162.9
tonnes).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. A (Clue: What
is Carbon Stock ? )
16)Consider the following :
1)Ecosystems play an important role in carbon storage,
protect the coastal areas, and enhance water quality besides other services,
such as cultural, spiritual or tourist attractions.
2) Wetlands are natural buffers against floods, droughts,
and tropical cyclones.
3)Wetlands can act as sponges, storing peak rainfall and
releasing water gradually during the lean season.
4)The floods in Kashmir Valley in September 2014 and
Chennai city in December 2015 are reminders of the ways wetland destruction can
make lives vulnerable.
5)The Ramsar Convention, signed on February 2, 1971, is
one of the oldest inter-governmental accords signed by member countries to
preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international
importance.
6)Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are protected.
7)India has 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of 13.3 lakh
ha, and 49 of these have been added in the last 8 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. A (Clue: What are Ramsar Sites? )
17)Consider the following :
1)Mangroves and coastal wetlands form the first
line of defence for coastal communities against increased storm surges,
flooding, and hurricanes.
2)As per a recent study, certain mangrove species in Chilika and Sundarbans along the east coast and Dwarka and Porbandar along the west coast of India are likely to reduce and shift
landward by 2070 due to a decline in suitable habitats in response to
precipitation and sea level changes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
18)Consider the following :
1)The Government has taken both regulatory and
promotional measures to protect and conserve mangroves.
2)The National Coastal Mission Programme on ‘Conservation
and Management of Mangroves and Coral Reefs’ is being implemented.
3)Regulatory measures are implemented through Coastal
Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification (2019) under the Environment(Protection)
Act, 1986; the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972; the Indian Forest Act, 1927;
the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; and rules under these acts as amended from
time to time.
4)As per the ISFR 2021, the mangrove cover in the
country has increased by 364 sq. km. in 2021 as compared to 2013
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
19)Consider the following :
1)The Government is working on mapping and converging the
5Ps’ - People, Policy, Plan, Programme and Project. It has been supplementing
the efforts of the States/Union Territories (UTs) by providing financial and
technical assistance for the abatement of pollution in identified polluted
stretches of rivers in the country through the Central Sector Scheme of Namami
Gange for River Ganga and its tributaries, and the Centrally Sponsored Scheme
of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) for other rivers
2)In addition, the government has recently released
Detailed Project Reports (DPR) for the rejuvenation of 13 major rivers prepared
by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun in
consultation with the State Forest Departments and other line Departments.
3)Works proposed under these DPRs include afforestation
on riverbanks leading to increased green cover, measures to contain soil
erosion, recharge the groundwater table, sequester carbon dioxide, catchment
area treatment, ecology
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
20)Consider the following :
1)While the target was to achieve 40 per cent of the
installed electric capacity from nonfossil fuel sources by 2030 in the initial
NDC submitted in 2015, the target has already been achieved.
2)India is now striving to achieve the target of 50 per
cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based
energy resources by 2030, in line with updated NDCs.
3)India is progressively becoming a favoured destination
for investment in renewables. As per the Renewables 2022 Global Status Report,
during the period 2014 -2021, total investment in renewables stood at US$ 78.1
billion in India. Investment in renewable energy has been close to or higher
than US$ 10 billion per year since 2016, except for a dip in 2020 likely due to
various Covid-19 restrictions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
21)Consider the following :
1)The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has projected
the optimal generation capacity mix to meet the peak electricity demand and
electrical energy requirement for 2029-30.
2)The estimate builds in improved efficiency and
minimises the total system cost subject to various technical/financial
constraints. The likely installed capacity by the end of 2029-30 is expected to
be more than 800 GW of which non-fossil fuel would be more than 500 GW
3)Moreover, the CEA has also estimated that the average
emission rate will decline by around 29 per cent by 2029-30 compared to
2014-15.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
22)Consider the following :
1)From the emerging global momentum on green hydrogen, India can situate this
decarbonisation opportunity not just within the context of a low-carbon economy
but also as an enabler of energy security and economic development for the
nation. It will be crucial for achieving decarbonisation of harder-to-abate
sectors such as fertilisers, refining, methanol, maritime shipping, iron &
steel and long-haul transport.
2)Green hydrogen is also an important element of India’s
Long Term Low Emissions Development Strategy (LT-LEDS).
3)With a vision to make India an energy-independent
nation, and to de-carbonise critical sectors, the Government approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission on January 4, 2023 with an initial outlay of Rs.19,744 crore. The
Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilisation and export of
Green Hydrogen and mobilisation of over Rs.8 lakh crore of investment by 2030.
4)Green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT
(Million Metric Tonne) per annum. • Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports
over Rs.1 lakh crore and creation of over 6 lakh jobs. • Renewable energy
capacity addition of about 125 GW and abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual GHG
emission
5)A report by NITI Aayog in June 2022 shows that in the
case of India, renewable tariffs have fallen in recent years, and electrolyser
costs are expected to fall in the future. A recent report by the International
Renewable Energy Agency (2020) suggests that the cost of electrolysers is
crucial for making green hydrogen economically viable. The report also
underscores the importance of innovation in electrolyser technology and the
rapid increase in its scale of production as the main factors that would drive
down the cost of electrolysers and green hydrogen.
6)NITI’s report estimates that the cumulative value of
the green hydrogen market in India will be US$ 8 billion by 2030 and US$ 340
billion by 2050. The electrolyser market will be approximately US$ 5 billion by 2030
and US$ 31 billion by 2050. In addition, the adoption of green hydrogen will
also result in 3.6 Giga tonnes of cumulative CO2 emission reduction by 2050.
This will also generate enormous energy import savings, ensure stability in
industry input prices, and strengthen foreign exchange reserves in the long
run.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
23)Consider the following about REEs:
1)The shift to a clean energy system is set to drive a
huge increase in the requirements for critical minerals.
2)This is because an energy system powered by clean
energy technologies differs profoundly from one fuelled by traditional
hydrocarbon resources.
3)Cobalt, copper,
lithium, nickel, and rare earth elements (REEs) are critical for producing
electric vehicles and batteries and harnessing solar power and wind energy.
4)Solar photovoltaic
(PV) plants, wind farms and electric vehicles (EVs) generally require more
minerals than their fossil fuel-based counterparts. A typical electric car
requires six times the mineral inputs of a conventional car, and an onshore
wind plant requires nine times more mineral resources than a gas-fired plant
5)The types of mineral
resources used vary by technology.
6)Lithium, nickel,
cobalt, manganese and graphite are crucial to battery performance, longevity
and energy density.
7)REEs are essential
for permanent magnets that are vital for wind turbines and EV motors.
8)Electricity networks need a huge amount of copper and
aluminium, with copper being a cornerstone for all electricity-related
technologies. While the demand for critical minerals is set to increase because
of the global preference and emphasis towards renewable energy, the global
supply chain of the critical minerals is highly concentrated and unevenly
distributed. The skewed distribution of the resource poses a supply risk in the
face of its enhanced demand.
9)A carefully crafted multi-dimensional mineral policy
would reduce our dependence and address the problems for the future. The
country has resources of nickel, cobalt, molybdenum, and heavy REEs, but
further exploration would be needed to evaluate the quantities of their
reserves. There is a need to create strategic mineral reserves along the lines
of strategic petroleum reserves to ensure a continuous supply of minerals.
Also, policies should consider investing in internal research including
technological innovation for mineral exploration and processing and the
development of Recycling, Reusing, and Repurposing (R3) technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. A (Clue: What are Rare Earth Elements / REEs ? )
24)Consider the following in the context of Long-Term Low Carbon Development Strategy (LT-LEDS)
:
1)India submitted its Long-Term
Low Carbon Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) on November 14, 2022, at COP 27.
2)The salient features of LT-LEDS are:-
• Focus on the rational utilisation of national resources
with due regard to energy security. The transitions from fossil fuels will be
undertaken in a just, smooth, sustainable and allinclusive manner. •
Encompasses the objectives of the National Hydrogen Policy. The rapid expansion
of green hydrogen production, increasing electrolyser manufacturing capacity in
the country, and a
three-fold increase in nuclear capacity by 2032 are some
of the other milestones that are envisaged alongside the overall development of
the power sector. • Increased use of biofuels, especially ethanol blending in
petrol. The drive to increase electric vehicle penetration, and the increased
use of green hydrogen fuel are expected to drive the low carbon development of
the transport sector. India aspires to maximise the use of electric vehicles,
ethanol blending to reach 20 per cent by the Ethanol Supply Year 2025-26, and a
strong modal shift to public transport for passengers and freight. •
Climate-resilient urban development will be driven by smart city initiatives,
integrated planning of cities for mainstreaming adaptation and enhancing energy
and resource efficiency, effective green building codes and developments in
innovative solid and liquid waste management. • India’s industrial sector will
continue on a strong growth path, with the vision of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ and
‘Make in India’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
25)Consider the following :
1)LT-LEDS has been prepared in the framework of India’s
right to an equitable and fair share of the global carbon budget and is the
practical implementation of India’s call for “climate justice.”
2)This is essential to ensure that there are no
constraints on realising India’s vision of rapid growth and economic
transformation while protecting the environment.
3)The LT-LEDS is driven by the vision of LiFE, Lifestyle
for the Environment that calls for a worldwide paradigm shift from mindless and
destructive consumption to mindful and deliberate utilisation. Here, the
transition to low carbon development pathway will entail costs. In addition,
the provision for climate finance by developed countries will play a very
significant role and, therefore, needs to be considerably enhanced in the form
of grants and concessional loans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a ( Clue : What is Climate Justice ? )
============================================
===================================
26)Consider the following :
1)The United Nations General Assembly, in its 75th
session during March 2021, declared 2023 the International Year of Millets
(IYM).
2)Millets are Smart Food with high nutritional value, are
climate resilient, and align with several UN Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs).
3)These are also important by virtue of their mammoth
potential to generate livelihood, increase farmers’ income and ensure food
& nutritional security all over the world.
4)India produces more than 50.9 million tonnes (as per
fourth advance estimate) of millet which accounts for 80 per cent of Asia’s and
20 per cent of global production.
5)The global average yield is 1229 kg/ha, whereas India
has a higher average yield of 1239 kg/ha.
6)In India, millets are primarily a Kharif crop mostly
grown in rainfed conditions, requiring less water and agricultural inputs than
other staple crops.
7)Given the nutritional value of the millets, the
Government notified Millets as Nutri-cereals in April 2018. Under the National
Food Security Mission (NFSM), millets have been introduced to provide
nutritional support. A sub-mission on Nutri-cereals is being implemented since
2018-19 in 212 districts of 14 States
8)India has more than 500 start-ups working in the millet
value chains, while the Indian Institute of Millets Research has incubated 250
start-ups under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana – Remunerative Approaches for
Agriculture and Allied Sectors Rejuvenation (RKVYRAFTAAR).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
27)Consider the following :
1)The allied sectors of Indian agriculture - livestock,
forestry & logging and fishing & aquaculture are gradually becoming
sectors of buoyant growth and a potential source of better farm incomes.
2)The livestock sector grew at a CAGR of 7.9 per cent
during 2014-15 to 2020- 21 (at constant prices), and its contribution to total
agriculture GVA (at constant prices) has increased from 24.3 per cent in
2014-15 to 30.1 per cent in 2020-21.
3)Similarly, the annual average growth rate of the
fisheries sector has been about 7 per cent since 2016-17 and has a share of
about 6.7 per cent in total agriculture GVA. Higher growth in allied sectors
compared to the crop sector has obvious implications in terms of the increasing
importance of the former in total agricultural GVA.
4)Recognising the growing importance of allied sectors,
the Committee on Doubling Farmers’ Income (DFI, 2018) considers dairying,
livestock, poultry, fisheries and horticulture as high-growth engines and has
recommended a focussed policy with a concomitant support system for the allied
sector.
5)The dairy sector is the most critical component of the
livestock sector, employing more than eight crore farmers directly, and is the
most prominent agrarian product. Other livestock products, such as eggs and
meat, are also growing in importance.
6)While India ranks first in milk production in the
world, it ranks third in egg production and eighth in meat
production in the world
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
28)Consider the following :
1)Cognisant of the importance of allied sectors, the
Government has made several critical interventions to enhance infrastructure
and improve livestock productivity and disease control.
2)As a part of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat (ANB) stimulus
package, the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF)
worth ₹15,000 crore was launched in 2020.
3)Under this scheme, the Central Government provides a 3
per cent interest subvention to the borrower and credit guarantees up to 25 per
cent of total borrowing.
4)As of 14 October 2022, 116 projects have been approved
under the scheme involving project costs of ₹3,731.4 crore.
5)National Livestock Mission (NLM) scheme has been
restructured for 2021-22 to 2025-26. The scheme focuses on entrepreneurship
development and breeds improvement in poultry, sheep, goat and piggery,
including feed and fodder development.
6)Also, the Livestock Health and Disease Control
(LH&DC) Scheme is being implemented to supplement the State/UT governments’
efforts towards preventing, controlling and containing animal diseases of
economic and zoonotic importance by vaccination.
7)National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) is
being implemented to control Foot & Mouth Disease and Brucellosis
by completely vaccinating cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig populations
against Foot & Mouth Disease and bovine female calves of 4-8 months of age
against brucellosis
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
29)Consider the following :
1)In May 2020, as a part of the ANB package, the
Government of India launched its flagship scheme Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
Yojana (PMMSY), with a total outlay of ₹20,050 crore.
2)PMMSY marks the highest-ever investment in the fisheries
sector in India, to be implemented over five years from FY21 to FY25 in all
States/Union Territories to drive sustainable and responsible development of
the fisheries sector while ensuring socio-economic development of the fishers,
fish farmers and fish workers.
3)Before this, attention had been paid to addressing
infrastructure gaps in the fisheries sector.
4)A dedicated Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure
Development Fund (FIDF) was established for five years, from 2018-19 to
2022-23, with an investment of ₹7,522 crore. Under the FIDF, as of 17 October
2022, proposals to the tune of ₹4,923.9 crore have been approved and have
benefitted over 9.4 lakh persons, through direct and indirect employment, in
fishing and allied activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
30)Consider the following :
1)National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Scheme: The
Government of India launched the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Scheme in
2016 to create an online transparent, competitive bidding system to ensure
farmers get remunerative prices for their produce.
2)Under the e-NAM Scheme, the Government provides free
software and assistance of ₹75 lakh per APMC mandi for related hardware,
including quality assaying equipment and the creation of infrastructure like
cleaning, grading, sorting, packaging, compost unit, etc.
3)As on 31 December 2022, more than 1.7 crore farmers and
2.3 lakh traders have been registered on e-NAM portal
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
31)Consider the following :
1)Climate-Smart Farming Practices: This is slowly
gaining acceptance with farmers using clean energy sources like solar for
irrigation.
2)The farmers have been incentivised to transfer
electricity generated through solar to the local grid.
3)Crop yield prediction models using artificial
intelligence and drones for monitoring soil and crop health have been
initiated.
3)Smart farming also enables crop diversification,
which will help farmers reduce their dependence on monsoons for water. There
are over 1,000 agritech start-ups in India. These assist farmers in improving
farming techniques
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
32)Consider the following :
1)Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
(MIDH): Several expert groups have identified horticulture as a high-growth
area and a source of buoyant income and improved resilience for farmers.
2)The scheme to promote horticulture covering fruits,
vegetables, root and tuber crops, spices, flowers, plantation crops etc., was
introduced in 2014-15. The interventions include introducing improved varieties
and quality seeds, incentives for plantation crops, cluster development, and
post-harvest management.
3)According to third advance estimates (2021-22), a
record production of 342.3 million tonnes in an area of 28.0 million hectares
was achieved.
4)The government has identified 55 horticulture clusters,
of which 12 have been selected for the Cluster Development Programme (CDP)
pilot phase. This programme is designed to leverage the geographical
specialisation of horticulture clusters and promote integrated and market-led
development of pre-production, production and post-harvest activities,
including the entire supply chain.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
33)Consider the following :
1)PMFBY was launched in the 2016 Kharif season to provide
comprehensive insurance coverage to farmers in case of crop failure, helping
stabilise their incomes.
2)The scheme is implemented through empanelled general insurance
companies. It is modified/revamped on a timely basis considering the prevailing
policy regime and requirement of policy intervention in crop insurance in the
country.
3)The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and
Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield data is available
and for which the requisite number of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) are being
conducted under the General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES).
4)The revamped Scheme w.e.f Kharif 2020 has many
features, which include voluntary participation for all farmers, selection of
Insurance Companies by the States for 3 years in a go, a two-step process of
crop yield estimation, use of smart sampling technique through satellite data
for crop cutting experiments, etc.
5)The scheme is implemented on an ‘Area Approach’ basis.
Admissible claims are worked out and paid directly to the insured farmer’s
account by the insurance companies on the yield data based on the requisite
number of CCEs per unit area furnished to the concerned insurance. However,
losses due to localised risks of hailstorms, landslides, inundation, etc., are
calculated on an individual-insured farm basis. These claims are assessed by a
joint committee comprising representatives of the State Government and concerned
insurance companies.
6)PMFBY is currently the largest crop insurance scheme in
the world in terms of farmer enrolments, averaging 5.5 crore applications every
year and the third largest in terms of premiums received. In the last six years
of its implementation, farmers have paid a premium of Rs.25,186 crore and
received claims amounting to Rs.1.26 lakh crore (as of 31st October 2022). The
increase in acceptability of the scheme amongst the farmer can be ascertained
from the fact that the share of non-loanee, marginalised and small farmers
increased by 282 per cent since the scheme's inception in 2016. During the
arduous seasons of 2017, 2018 and 2019 marred by weather extremities, the
scheme proved to be a decisive factor in securing the livelihoods of farmers,
wherein the claims paid ratio in several states averaged more than 100 per cent
against the gross premium collected. For example, the States of Chhattisgarh
(2017), Odisha (2017), Tamil Nadu (2018), and Jharkhand (2019) received 384 per
cent, 222 per cent, 163 per cent and 159 per cent of claims ratio against a
gross premium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
34)Consider the following :
1)PM KISAN Scheme: It is a Central Sector Scheme to
supplement the financial needs of land-holding farmers.
2)The financial benefit of Rs.6,000 per year is
transferred into the bank accounts of farmer families through DBT. It is one of
the largest DBT schemes in the world. About 11.3 crore farmers were covered
under the Scheme in its April-July 2022-23 payment cycle. The Scheme, through a
span of over 3 years, has successfully provided assistance of more than Rs. 2
lakh crore to crores of needy farmers. Many studies and findings indicate that
the PM KISAN scheme has helped farmers towards productive investment in
agricultural activities.
3)This, through a multiplier effect, has contributed to
the overall improvement of the farm sector. For instance, in an empirical study
with the Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), the International Food
Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) found that the scheme has enabled addressing
the liquidity constraints of farmers for buying agricultural inputs.
4)Further, for the small and marginal farmers, it has
helped them meet their requirement of funds for farm inputs and their daily
consumption, education, health and other incidental expenses
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
35)Consider the following :
1)Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF): AIF is a
financing facility operational from the year 2020-21 to 2032-33 for the
creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets,
with benefits including 3 per cent interest subvention and credit guarantee
support.
2)Under this, a provision of Rs.1 lakh crore for 2020-21
to 2025-26 has been made, and interest subvention and credit guarantee
assistance will be given until 2032-33.
3)AIF scheme has the facility of convergence with any other
scheme of the State or Central Government and can prove to be a milestone in
investment in the agriculture sector
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
36)Consider the following BPKB:
1)Organic and natural farming provides chemical
fertiliser and pesticide-free food grains and other crops, improves soil health
and reduces environmental pollution. India has 44.3 lakh organic farmers, the
highest in the world, and about 59.1 lakh ha area was brought under organic
farming by 2021-22.
2)Sikkim voluntarily adopted going organic, and the
process of getting the total cultivable land of 58,168 hectares under organic
farming commenced at ground level in 2010. It became the first State in the
world to become fully organic, and other States, including Tripura and
Uttarakhand, have set similar targets.
3)The Government has been promoting organic farming by
implementing two dedicated schemes, i.e., Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
(PKVY) and Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern
Region (MOVCDNER) since 2015 through cluster/ Farmer Producer
Organisations (FPOs) formation.
4)PKVY Scheme is being implemented in a cluster mode
(with min. 20 ha size). Financial assistance of ₹50,000 per ha for three years
is provided to the farmer, out of which ₹31,000 is given as incentives for
organic inputs provided directly through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Under
PKVY as of 16 November 2022, 32,384 clusters totalling 6.4 lakh ha area and
16.1 lakh farmers have been covered. In addition, as part of the Namami Gange
Programme, a 1.2 lakh ha area has been covered under organic farming.
5)MOVCDNER is dedicated to promoting organic farming of
niche crops of the North East Region through FPOs. Under the MOVCDNER, 177
FPOs/FPCs have been created, covering 1.5 lakh farmers and 1.7 lakh hectares
6)Promotion of natural farming began in 2019-20, when Bhartiya
Prakratik Krishi Paddhati (BPKP), a sub-scheme of PKVY, was launched to
assist farmers in adopting traditional indigenous practices for encouraging all
forms of ecological farming, including Zero-Budget
Natural Farming (ZBNF). The
scheme focuses on capacity building, training, handholding, and on-field
demonstration of natural farming through champion farmers.
7)Under the BPKP, 4.09 lakh ha of land have been brought
under Natural farming in 8 States (Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Kerala,
Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
37)Consider the following about foodgrains:
1)As per Fourth Advance Estimates for 2021-22, the
production of food grains and oil seeds has been increasing Year-on-Year (YoY).
2)Production of pulses has also been notably higher than
the average of 23.8 million tonnes in the last five years.
3)However, as indicated earlier changing climate has been
impacting agriculture adversely. The year 2022 witnessed an early heat wave
during the wheat-harvesting season, adversely affecting its production. The
year experienced a decline in the sown area for paddy cultivation too in the
Kharif season due to delayed monsoons and deficient rainfall.
4)As per First Advance Estimates 2022-23 (kharif only)
the paddy area was about 3.8 lakh hectares less than the sown area of 411.2
lakh hectare during 2021-22 (kharif season). Further, in the current rabi
season the area under rabi paddy has expanded by 6.6 lakh hectares as compared
to last year (Crop Weather Watch Group 12 January 2023). As per the First
Advance Estimates for 2022-23 (Kharif only), total food grains production in
the country is estimated at 149.9 million tonnes which is higher than the
average Kharif food grain production of the previous five years (2016-17 to
2020-21).
5)Despite a fall in the sown area of Kharif paddy, the
total production of Kharif rice during 2022-23 is estimated at 104.9 million
tonnes, which is higher than the previous five years (2016-17 to 2020-21)
average Kharif rice production of 100.5 million tonnes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
38)Consider the following E-Waste Management :
1)The Government notified the E-Waste (Management) Rules,
2022, on November 2, 2022.
2)These rules will replace the E-waste (Management)
Rules, 2016, and will be effective from April 1, 2023.
3)These rules will launch a new Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR) regime for e-waste recycling.
4)The salient feature of new rules is as under
The authorisation has now been replaced by registration
through an online portal, and only manufacturers, producers, refurbishers and
recyclers require registration. • Schedule I has been expanded, and now 106
Electrical and Electronic Equipment (EEE) have been included under the EPR
regime. • Producers of notified EEE have been given annual E-Waste Recycling
targets based on the generation from the previously sold EEE or based on sales
of EEE, as the case may be. • Management of solar PV modules /panels/ cells
added in new rules. • The recycled quantity will be computed based on end-products
to avoid false claims. • Provision for generation and transaction of EPR
Certificate has been introduced. • Provisions for environmental compensation
and verification & audit have been introduced
5)Under these rules, a provision for reducing hazardous
substances in the manufacturing of EEE has been provided. It mandates that
every producer of EEE and their components shall ensure that their products do
not contain lead, mercury, and other hazardous substances beyond the maximum
prescribed concentration. It also provides for recognition and registration,
skill development, monitoring, and ensuring the safety and health of workers
involved in dismantling and recycling e-waste
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
39)Consider the following Waste Management:
1)The Government published the Battery Waste Management
Rules, 2022, on August 24, 2022 to ensure environmentally sound management of
waste batteries.
2)Notifying these rules is a transformative step towards
promoting the circular economy.
3)New rules will replace Batteries (Management and
Handling) Rules, 2001. The rules cover all types of batteries, viz. Electric
Vehicle batteries, portable batteries, automotive batteries, and industrial
batteries.
4)The rules function based on the concept of Extended
Producer Responsibility (EPR), where the producers (including importers) of
batteries are responsible for the collection and recycling/refurbishment of
waste batteries and the use of recovered materials from wastes into new
batteries.
5)EPR mandates that all waste batteries be collected and
sent for recycling/ refurbishment, prohibiting disposal in landfills and
incineration. To meet the EPR obligations, producers may engage themselves or
authorise any other entity to collect, recycle, or refurbish waste batteries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
40)Consider the following Waste Management :
1)The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
notified the Guidelines on Extended Producer Responsibility for plastic
packaging vide Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2022, on 16
February 2022.
2)The key highlights of the Guidelines on Extended
Producers Responsibility (EPR) on plastic packaging notified on February 16,
2022 are:
(a) mandatory registration of Producers, Importers, and
Brand Owners (PIBOs) and Plastic Waste Processors (PWPs) through a centralised
online portal; (b) coverage of four categories of plastic packaging viz. rigid,
flexible, multi-layered plastic packaging, and compostable plastic packaging;
(c) clearly defined targets for EPR; (d) mandatory targets for reuse of rigid
plastic packaging, minimum level of recycling of plastic waste and use of
recycled plastic content in plastic packaging; (e) centralised online portal to
support the implementation of EPR; (f) provision for the sale and purchase of
surplus EPR certificates; (g) levy of environmental compensation for
non-fulfilment of EPR obligations and (h) provision for verification, audit and
monitoring of obligated entities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
41)Consider the following Waste Management :
1)The Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules,
2022, were notified on July 6, 2022.
2)The amendment aligns the rules with the Guidelines on
Extended Producer Responsibility for plastic packaging.
3)The amendment provides a statutory framework for biodegradable
plastics after conforming to BIS Standards and the Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB) certification.
4)The rules mandate that environmental compensation shall
be levied based upon the polluter pays principle, on persons not complying with
the provisions of these rules, as per guidelines notified by the Central
Pollution Control Board
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
42)Consider the following Waste Management:
1)The waste management infrastructure in the States/UTs
is also being strengthened through the Swachh Bharat Mission. All States/UTs
have constituted a Special Task Force for eliminating single-use plastics and
effectively implementing Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. A National Level
Taskforce has been formed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change to make coordinated efforts to eliminate identified single-use plastic
items and effective implementation of Plastic Waste.
2)The resumed session of the fifth United Nations
Environment Assembly held in Nairobi on 2 March 2022 adopted a resolution “End
plastic pollution: towards an international legally binding instrument”.
3)India engaged constructively with all member states to
develop a consensus on the resolution for driving global action on plastic
pollution. On the insistence of India, the principle of national circumstances
and capability while addressing plastic pollution was included in the
resolution text to allow developing countries to follow their development
trajectories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
43)Consider the following about single-use plastics :
1)India is committed to mitigating pollution caused by
littered single-use plastics.
2)According to a report on Plastic Waste Management
released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, the global average of
plastic per capita consumption is 28 kg, and India has a per capita plastic
consumption of 11 kg. However, as an attempt to reduce pollution caused due to
littered plastic waste in the country, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change, Government of India, notified the Plastic Waste Management
Amendment Rules, 2021, on August 12, 2021.
3)On July 1, 2022, a ban was imposed on the manufacture,
import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified single-use
plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential, all
across the country. The measures will promote a circular economy, reduce the
plastic footprint of plastic packaging, promote the development of new
alternatives to plastic packaging and provide the next steps for moving towards
sustainable plastic packaging by businesses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
44)Consider the following about Wild Life :
1)India has a rich heritage of wildlife and a long
history and tradition of conservation. The concern for wildlife is, indeed, the
concern for the man himself. All forms of life – human, animal and plants are
so closely interlinked that disturbance in one leads to an imbalance in others.
2) A comprehensive legislation was enacted in 1972 called
the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 to provide special legal protection to our
wildlife and the endangered species of fauna.
3)Animals such as tigers, lions, and elephants are
keystone and flagship species whose preservation benefits the entire
ecosystems.
4)As of 10 August 2022, India is home to 53 Tiger
Reserves covering approximately 75,796.8 sq. km area in 18 States, with about
75 per cent of the wild tiger population at the global level.
5)India achieved the goal of doubling the tiger numbers
in 2018, four years before the targeted year 2022. In addition, 17 Tiger
Reserves in the country have CA|TS international accreditation, and two have
received International Tx2 Award.
6)The TX2 Tiger Conservation Award is given away by
Conservation Assured | Tiger Standards (CA|TS), Fauna & Flora
International, Global Tiger Forum, IUCN Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation
Programme, Panthera, UNDP Lion’s Share, Wildlife Conservation Society, and
World Wide Fund For Nature’s (WWF’s) Tigers Alive Initiative
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
45)Consider the following Asiatic Lions:
1)The population of Asiatic Lions has shown a steady
increase, with a population of 674 individuals (2020), 28.87 per cent (one of
the highest growth rates so far) higher than the 523 lions in 2015.
2)India now (2020) has 12,852 leopards compared to the
previous estimate of 7910 conducted in 2014.
More than a 60 per cent increase in population has been
recorded.
3)The current population estimates indicate about 50,000
– 60,000 Asian elephants worldwide. More than 60 per cent of the population is
in India.
4)Indian Elephant has also been listed in Appendix I of
the Convention of the Migratory species in the Conference of Parties of CMS 13
at Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat, in February 2020
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
46)Consider the following :
1)The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 The Act has been
amended multiple times to strengthen conservation measures and fulfil
multilateral commitments on wildlife preservation.
2)Targeting further reforms in wildlife conservation, the
government has brought in the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022. The
Act seeks to increase the number of species protected under the law and
implement the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora16 (CITES). The Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 has six
schedules.
3)The Act aims to rationalise the schedules by (i)
reducing the number of schedules for specially protected animals to two, (ii)
removing the schedule for vermin species, and (iii) inserting a new schedule
for specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES (scheduled specimens).
Lastly, the Act empowers the government to regulate or prohibit the import,
trade, possession or proliferation of invasive alien species.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
47)Consider the following :
1)The introduction of Cheetahs in India is being done under
Project Cheetah, the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore
translocation project. The cheetah was declared extinct from India in 1952.
2)Under the scheme, eight Namibian wild cheetahs were
introduced on 17 September 2022 in Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh.
Out of the eight Cheetahs, there are five female and three male Cheetahs.
3)The historic reintroduction of Cheetahs in India is
part of a long series of measures for ensuring sustainability and environmental
protection. Cheetahs can help restore open forest and grassland ecosystems in
India. This will help conserve biodiversity and enhance the ecosystem services
like water security, carbon sequestration, and soil moisture conservation,
benefiting society. This effort, in line with the Prime Minister’s commitment
to environmental protection and wildlife conservation, will also lead to
enhanced livelihood opportunities for the local community through
eco-development and ecotourism activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
48)Consider the following :
1)Conservation of biodiversity is crucial as it provides
resources and services necessary for human beings and for the sustenance of all
living beings. It enhances ecosystem productivity, where each species, however
small, has an important role to play.
2)May 22nd is celebrated as an International Day for
Biological Diversity every year globally to create awareness among the citizens
and stakeholders on the importance and need for the conservation of biological
diversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
49)Consider the following :
1)India ranks eighth in the world and fourth in Asia
among the mega-diverse countries in the world. It is also rich in fauna, and
nearly 62 per cent of the recorded amphibian species are endemic to India,
which is majorly found in the Western Ghats.
2)Globally, India holds the eighth position for the
origin and diversity of crop plants, as it has more than 300 wild ancestors and
close relatives of cultivated plants growing naturally.
3)Notably, around 9,500 plant species are used as
medicine in indigenous health practices. Moreover, local and indigenous people
use more than 3,900 plant species as food, fibre, fodder, insecticides and
pesticides, gum, resins, dyes, perfumes, and timber.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
50)Consider the following CBD :
1)The 1992 Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro led to the
adoption of an internationally binding legal instrument, the Convention on
Biological Diversity (CBD), with the objectives of conservation, sustainable
use, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of
biological diversity.
2)The fifteenth meeting of the Conference of Parties (COP
15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) took place between 7th and
19th December 2022 in Montreal, Canada. Key outcomes of the COP 15 include
Effective conservation and management of at least 30 per cent of the world’s
lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and oceans.
3)Currently, 17 per cent and 10 per cent of the world’s
terrestrial and marine areas are under protection. • Reduce to near zero the
loss of areas of high biodiversity importance. • Cut global food waste in half
and significantly reduce overconsumption and waste generation. • Reduce by half
both excess nutrients and the overall risk posed by pesticides and highly
hazardous chemicals. • Progressively phasing out or reforming subsidies that
harm biodiversity by 2030 by at least US$500 billion per year while scaling up
positive incentives for biodiversity’s conservation and sustainable use. •
Mobilise by 2030 at least US$ 200 billion per year in domestic and
international biodiversityrelated funding from all sources – public and
private. • Raise international financial flows from developed to developing
countries, in particular, least developed countries, small-island developing
States, and countries with economies in transition, to at least US$ 20 billion
per year by 2025 and to at least US$ 30 billion per year by 2030.
4)In conformity with the spirit of the CBD, India enacted
the Biological Diversity Act in 2002. The Act mandates the implementation of
the objectives through a decentralised system with the National Biodiversity
Authority at the national level, the State Biodiversity Boards at the State
level, and Biodiversity Management Committees at the local body level. Each of
these entities is a statutory and autonomous body with specific mandates and
powers to facilitate the effective implementation of the provisions of the Act
and the Rules.
5)India and Nepal signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) in August 2022 on biodiversity conservation to strengthen and enhance the
coordination and cooperation in the field of forests, wildlife, environment,
biodiversity conservation, and climate change, including restoration of
corridors and interlinking areas and sharing knowledge and best practices
between the two countries. The MoU would help promote cooperation between the
Parties in the field of forests, wildlife, environment, biodiversity
conservation, and climate change, including restoration of corridors and
interlinking areas and sharing knowledge and best practices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
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