Civils Prelims 2024
Model Questions
TSPSC GROUP – 1 PRELIMS EXAM , 2024
TEST 10
(Prepared
on 16.5.2024 )
Prepared
by :
Praturi Potayya Sarma MA,LLB,PGDIRP
GENERAL STUDIES / Model Questions based on (Current
Affairs)
SCIENCE &
TECHNOLOGY TOPICS
Questions
on Aidtya L1 and CME
1)
Consider the following about Sun :
1)Surprisingly the Sun and its atmosphere is made
up of a soup of positively charged protons, negatively charged electrons and
other ions mixed with the solar magnetic field, extending somewhere between 10
and 20 solar radii from the surface of the Sun, the solar corona, the
atmosphere of the Sun is an enigma.
2)While the surface of the Sun is 5,600 degrees,
the corona, interestingly, is about two million degrees.
3)“We have some idea of why it is so, but the
problem is not fully resolved,” says , Director of Aryabhatta Research
Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES).
4)“Observations from Adtiya L1 will help us
understand the dynamics of the Sun and how solar variability impacts the
climate on Earth and affects the space weather.”
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
2) Consider the following about Lagrange Point
L1 :
1)Discovered by mathematician Joseph Louis
Lagrange, L1 is one of the five points located approximately 1.5 million
kilometres away, where the gravitational forces of the Sun and the Earth are in
equilibrium.
2) A spacecraft placed at L1 orbits the Sun at the
same rate as Earth and affords an uninterrupted view of the Sun, making it an
ideal observation post for space-based solar observatories.
3)The L1 is currently home to the European Space
Agency (ESA)- National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) Solar and
Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) observing the Sun and its dynamics.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
3) Consider the following about Aditya L1 :
1)Aditya L1 joined other observatory to unravel the
mysteries of the dynamics of the Sun.
2)Aditya L1 was Launched on September 2, 2023 and the
craft will undergo five orbit-raising manoeuvres before being slingshot to the
L1 point.
3)The ship coasted for about four months before it
reached L1.
4)At that stage, the thrusters fired to make the craft circle around the L1,
placing it in what is known as a halo orbit around L1.
5)From this vantage point, Aditya L1 can observe
the Sun 24X7 using its four remote sensing payloads, and measure in-situ the
various parameters of space weather.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
4)Consider the following about Sun Spots:
1)Like a heartbeat, solar activity is measured in
terms of the number of sunspots.
2)Sunspots are cooler regions on the Sun’s surface
which increase and decrease in a cycle of 11 years.
3)When the Sun is active, the number of sunspots is
in the hundreds, and at solar minimum, the numbers are nearly zero. However,
according to an expert, who is with the Pune-based Inter-University Centre for
Astronomy and Astrophysics, “despite the variation in solar activity, the
emission in visible and long wavelengths is nearly steady.
4)Whatever changes we observe in the solar
radiation, nearly 80% occur in the ultraviolet range,” he says.
5)The Earth’s upper atmosphere absorbs most of the
solar UV rays. “The absorbed energy affects the atmosphere’s composition,
temperature and other parameters. It is imperative to know how far variation in
the UV rays emitted by the Sun contributes to climate variability on Earth,” he
adds.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
5)Consider the following about Ultra Violet rays
coming from Sun .
1)The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT)
developed by the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy & Astrophysics, in
close collaboration with the ISRO, the Center of Excellence in Space Sciences
India, Mohanpur, the Manipal Academy of Higher Education etc, will observe the
UV radiation from different zones of the solar atmosphere.
2)The onboard intelligence system(Aditya L1) will
detect any sudden appearance of bright spots, such as solar flares (a sudden
burst of high energy visible light, UV rays, X rays and Gamma rays) on the
disc.
3)The automated system will trigger the rapid
imaging of different layers, and thus, we will obtain a 3D tomographic view of
the Sun. “With this system in place, the event’s progression through the layers
of the solar atmosphere can be imaged,” says an expert.
4)Combining the data from the Solar Low Energy
X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) and the High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer
(HEL1OS) developed by the ISRO’s Bengaluru based U. R. Rao Satellite Centre
with SUIT, “ can [help us] gain insights into the emergence, progression and
energetics of transient events on the surface of the Sun in the UV region”.
5)Observing the Sun using the SUIT will enable us
to better understand climate variation on Earth. “Earth’s climate has
definitely changed. Global warming is real. The data from SUIT and other papers
of Aditya L1 will help us resolve the contribution of natural and anthropogenic
factors driving climate change,” says an expert.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
6)Consider the following about Coronal Mass
Ejection (CME) :
1)At times, the Sun sneezes. Like a tongue of fire,
a chunk of the corona suddenly accelerates and leaps into interplanetary space.
2)Called Coronal Mass ejection (CME), this cloud
consisting of billion tonnes of energetic plasma mixed with a solar magnetic field
is hurled at 250 kilometres per second to 3,000 km/s.
3)Usually, the corona is not visible in the glare
of the radiant Sun, except during the brief moment of a total solar eclipse.
However, solar physicists can create artificial eclipses in the solar telescope,
called coronograph, to observe the corona.
4)Hitherto, no space telescope could peer at the
inner corona, closer to the Sun. “They could look at either 1.1 solar radii or
larger,” says a Professor of Solar Physic at the Bengaluru-based Indian Institute
of Astrophysics.
5) “However, theoretical study indicates that the
acceleration of the coronal mass ejection happens below 1.1 solar radii,” he
adds. With no insight into the solar corona’s inner part dynamics, we are yet
to fully understand the mechanism that drives the CMEs.
6)The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC)
developed by the Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Astrophysics in close
collaboration with the ISRO can peek as close as 1.05 solar radii, a region
never imaged by any solar telescope. From 1.05, it can scan upto three solar
radii. With this unique capability of VELC, “we can get crucial information
about the mechanism responsible for CME acceleration,” says an expert
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
6)Consider the following about Solar Wind :
1)Along with sunlight and electromagnetic
radiation, such as ultraviolet rays, the Sun emits a constant stream of charged
particles and a mixture of solar magnetic fields that travel throughout
interplanetary space.
2)Called a solar wind, the average speed of the
flow near the Earth is about 300 kilometres per second.
3)The solar wind constantly rams the Earth’s
magnetosphere, which functions like a shield and deflects most of it.
Nevertheless, the energetic particles from the solar wind sneak through the
weak magnetic regions of the Earth — the north and south poles and interact
with the molecules in the atmosphere, creating the dazzling display of aurora.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
7)Consider the following about solar storm and
geomagnetic storm :
1)Violent eruptions like solar flares and CMEs
trigger a strong wind or solar storm.
2)A geomagnetic storm occurs when the solar storm
bashes the Earth’s magnetosphere.
3)While brilliant, beautiful auroras appear as more
energetic particles flow through the north and south poles, GPS and short-wave
communication are disrupted, and the electronics in the satellite are in
danger.
4) Intense geomagnetic storms can induce
magnetic-induced currents in the power grid and pipelines, resulting in power
outages and fire.
5)The energy from the charged particles heats the
upper atmosphere, increasing the density and causing extra drag on satellites
in low-earth orbit.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
8)Consider the following about Space weather
:
1)The changes in the solar wind’s density, speed
and direction is called space weather.
2)Solar storms result in inclement space weather.
Aditya L1 will function as a space weather station. The Aditya Solar Wind
Particle Experiment (ASPEX) developed by the ISRO’s Ahmedabad-based Physical
Research Laboratory, the Plasma Analyser Package For Aditya (PAPA) developed by
the Thiruvananthapuram based Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre and the advanced
Tri-axial High-Resolution Digital Magnetometers developed by the Bengaluru
based ISRO’s Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems keep a constant watch over
the parameters of space weather near Aditya L1. Using the data from these
instruments, scientists can predict probable geomagnetic storms and better
understand space weather dynamics.
3)“Near Earth environ is filled with hundreds of
satellites and the change in the space weather can affect them directly. The
trajectory can be deflected by impact of a solar storm on upper atmosphere.
ISRO alone has 50,000 crore worth of space assets,” says Mr. Dipankar.
Understanding space weather is an international issue, and the data from Adtiya
L1 will aid in making models and predicting storms in advance.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTIONS ON
‘ECOCIDE’
9) Consider
the following about ‘Maya train’ project ?
1)Mexico’s ‘Maya train’ project has acquired a
contradictory reputation. Some describe it as a “Pharaonic project”, with a
route spanning 1,525 km, connecting tourists in the Caribbean with historic
Maya sites and costing $20 billion to build.
2)It has also been described as a “megaproject of
death” because it imperils the Yucatán peninsula and its rich wilderness,
ancient cave systems, and Indigenous communities.
3)The Tribunal for the Rights of Nature said the project caused “crimes of ecocide and
ethnocide”.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
10) What is ‘Ecocide’?
1)Ecocide, derived from Greek and Latin, translates
to “killing one’s home” or “environment”.
2)Such ‘killing’ could include port expansion
projects that destroy fragile marine life and local livelihoods; deforestation;
illegal sand-mining; and polluting rivers with untreated sewage. Mexico is one
of several countries mulling ecocide legislation.
3)There is also a push to elevate ecocide to the
ranks of an international crime, warranting similar legal scrutiny as genocide.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
10)Who coined the term ‘Ecocide’? Which of the
following is correct ?
1)The biologist Arthur Galston in 1970 is credited
with first linking environmental destruction with genocide, which is recognised
as an international crime, when referring to the U.S. military’s use of Agent
Orange in the Vietnam War.
2)Two years later, Sweden Prime Minister Olof Palme
used the term in a speech at the U.N. British lawyer Polly Higgins became the
linchpin when in 2010 she urged the International Criminal Court (ICC) to
recognise ecocide as an international crime.
3)Today, the Rome Statute of the ICC deals with
four atrocities: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime
of aggression. The provision on war crimes is the only statute that can hold a
perpetrator responsible for environmental damage, but only if it is intentional
and in wartime.
4)Ms. Higgins proposed that the Statute should be
amended to treat crimes against nature on par with crimes against people. She
described ecocide thus: “Extensive loss, damage to or destruction of ecosystems
… such that the peaceful enjoyment by the inhabitants has been or will be
severely diminished.” Here, “inhabitants” applies to all living creatures.
5)There is no accepted legal definition of ecocide,
but a panel of lawyers in June 2021 for the Stop Ecocide Foundation prepared a
165-word articulation. Ecocide, they proposed, constitutes the “unlawful or
wanton acts committed with knowledge that there is a substantial likelihood of
severe and either widespread or long-term damage to the environment being
caused by those acts.”
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
12)Consider the following about ‘Ecocide’:
1)Ecocide is a crime in 11 countries, with 27
others considering laws to criminalise environmental damage that is wilfully
caused and harms humans, animals, and plants.
2)The European Parliament voted unanimously this
year to enshrine ecocide in law. Most national definitions penalise “mass
destruction of flora and fauna”, “poisoning the atmosphere or water resources”
or “deliberate actions capable of causing an ecological disaster.”
3)The ICC and Ukraine’s public prosecutor are also
investigating Russia’s role in the collapse of the Nova Kakhovka dam, which
unleashed a flood that drowned 40 regions, and released oils and toxic fluids
into the Black Sea.
4)On one level, ecocide laws are legal instruments
to plug a loophole in environmental protection. “None of the existing
international criminal laws protect the environment as an end in itself, and
that’s what the crime of ecocide does,” Philippe Sands, a professor of international
law at University College London and co-chair of the panel that drafted the
definition, said in 2021.
5)The movement also responds to harsh climate
realities. Over a third of the earth’s animal and plant species could be
extinct by 2050. Unprecedented heat waves have broken records worldwide.
Changing rainfall schemes have disrupted flood and drought patterns. The
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change reiterated in March 2023 that global
climate action remains “insufficient”.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
13)What about the discussions about ‘ecocide’?
1)In this milieu, an amendment to the Rome Statute
could prompt countries around the world to draft their own laws, and individual
countries that have incorporated ecocide in their laws could in turn build
pressure on the ICC.
2) An expert in environmental constitutionalism,
told that the purpose of ecocide laws is to define the “significant harm”
of environmental damage, together with accountability and liability.
Deforestation of the Amazon, deep-sea trawling or even the catastrophic 1984
Bhopal gas disaster could have been avoided with ecocide laws in place,
according to Stop Ecocide International.
3)These laws could also hold individuals at the
helms of corporations accountable. “That something is morally questionable
usually doesn’t hinder investment. Laws provide boundaries and sanctions for
investment, as no company or organisation – such as the World Bank – would want
to invest in something potentially criminal,” two scholars wrote in a 2021
article.
4)Ecocide laws could also double up as calls for
justice for low- and middle-income countries disproportionately affected by
climate change. Small nation-states like Vanuatu and Barbuda are already
lobbying the ICC to declare crimes against the environment to be violations of
international law.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
14)What are the limitations of defining the
‘ecocide’?
1)There are also many arguments against
criminalising ecocide. Some experts have called the 2021 definition ambiguous
and as setting a very low threshold to implicating an entity. Words like
“long-term” or “widespread damage” are abstract and leave room for
misinterpretation, Prof. Siddiqui said.
2)The definition describes “wanton” as damage that
is “clearly excessive in relation to the social and economic benefits
anticipated.” But this, she continued, constructs a
development-versus-environment narrative – one that others have argued could
mean that it is ‘okay’ to destroy the environment as long as it benefits
humans.
3)The threshold to prove ‘ecocide’ may also be too
high. Countries like Belarus and Moldova specify “intentional” or “deliberate”
destruction, but “environmental disasters are not caused intentionally or deliberately,”
an international law professor, argued in an article. “This wording … may have
the effect of limiting, if not excluding, the liability of corporations’ top
managers’ and Governments’ officials’.”
4)The ICC also has limited legal powers as well as
an uneven track record of converting prosecutions into convictions.
Specifically, the court’s power is limited to “natural persons,” so without any
significant changes, the ICC will not be unable to hold corporate entities
criminally liable.
5)Moreover, an expert asked, “even if you’re able
to define ecocide, how will you define the idea of jurisdiction?” Experts have
noted that most ‘crimes’ are transnational in nature: corporations have private
or State-owned corporations in other countries (which are not members of the
Rome Statute) that are responsible for polluting activities. For example,
Coca-Cola was accused of poisoning land in South India with waste sludge and
pushing thousands of farmers out of work by draining the water that fed their
wells.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
15)What is the stand on ‘ecocide’ in India?
1)Some Indian judgments have affirmed the legal
personhood of nature by recognising rivers as legal entities with the right to
maintain their spirit, identity, and integrity.
2)More importantly, some others have used the term
‘ecocide’ in passing but the concept hasn’t fully materialised in law.
3)In Chandra CFS and Terminal Operators Pvt. Ltd.
v. The Commissioner of Customs and Ors (2015), the Madras High Court noted:
“the prohibitory activities of ecocide has been continuing unbridledly by
certain section of people by removing the valuable and precious timbers”.
4)In an ongoing case, T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad
vs Union Of India & Ors, the Supreme Court called attention to an
“anthropogenic bias” and argued that “environmental justice could be achieved
only if we drift away from the principle of anthropocentric to ecocentric” –
echoing an argument advanced by many activists, that criminalising ecocide
could replace the anthropocentric legal view with a value for nature as a thing
unto itself.
5)India’s legislative framework vis-à-vis
environmental and ecological governance includes the Environmental (Protection)
Act 1986, the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, and the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA) 2016, as well as separate Rules to prevent air
and water pollution. According to an expert, these separate laws have to be
consolidated into a unified code and institutions have to be streamlined so
that debates like the one about ecocide and rights of nature find “their proper
way through legal channels”.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
15)Consider the following :
1)Notably, the National Green Tribunal, India’s
apex environmental statutory body, does not have the jurisdiction to hear
matters related to the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, the Indian Forest Act 1927,
and other State-enacted laws.
2)As a result, mining of sand on the banks of the
Chambal river or the Himachal floods would qualify as being environmental
crimes under the current articulation but, an expert said, “how would one go
about addressing this, considering the institutions in the way?”
3)Indian laws are themselves in a state of
conflict: the Parliament passed the controversial Forest Conservation
(Amendment) Bill 2023 and Biodiversity (Amendment) Bill 2023, which experts
have said will dilute current legal protections and will lead to the loss of
20-25% of forest area in the country and the attendant biodiversity and
ecosystem issues.
4)It is noted that one critical challenge is to
tackle problems of liability and compensation – an example of the “friction
between committing to environmental protection and actual action.” For example,
survivors of the Bhopal gas disaster are still fighting for compensation. The
disaster’s aftermath has been characterised by an intergenerational impact on
health and widespread contamination of soil and groundwater.
5)Several independent investigations have also
alleged that funds earmarked for CAMPA have been misused and/or diverted for
other purposes. But despite the National Green Tribunal having slapped fines worth
Rs 28,180 crore on seven States, there is little clarity on the total fines
collected and the way they were used, according to a 2022 report
6)“Even before ecocide laws come up
internationally, India needs to first bring its [environmental] laws in tune
with the idea of ecocide,”
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
============================================
16) Consider the following about ‘Ecocide’?
1)Ecocide or ‘killing
one’s home’ or ‘environment’ refers to acts like port expansion projects,
deforestation, illegal sand mining, polluting rivers and releasing untreated
sewage, etc., that destroy fragile natural ecosystems and local livelihoods.
2)Mexico is the
latest country to consider passing a law to make ecocide a crime.
3)The bill was
proposed by a congresswoman from Nuevo Leon, Karina Marlen Barrón Perales (PRI)
on July 30 as a consequence of the ‘Maya Train Project’ which would cover 1,525
km and connect tourists in the Caribbean with Maya sites.
4)The project would
threaten the biodiversity of the Yucatan peninsula and the culture of its
ethnic communities.
5)Countries that have
criminalised ecocide include Vietnam, Ukraine and Russia.
6)Ukraine’s public
prosecutor is investigating a possible case of ecocide against Russia for the
Kakhovka dam breach where earlier , an explosion destroyed the dam where vast
amounts of polluted water was unleashed downstream along the Dnipro river,
flooding dozens of settlements, killing dolphins at an alarming rate and making
farmlands unusable.
7)In France,
carcinogen chemical trichloroethylene was detected by a resident of
Grézieu-La-Varenne in 2019 who found a foul-smelling liquid in her backyard
which was 800 times the legally acceptable limit.
8)Alongside the
criminal trial for ‘ecocide’, six civil lawsuits have also been filed by
residents which found two solicitors and one real estate company guilty.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
17) Consider the
following :
1)In Brazil, the
Socialism and Liberty Party put an ecocide bill to congress in June after
merciless deforestation of the Amazon rainforest continued to batter the
natural environment.
2)Around March 2023,
the European parliament supported the inclusion of ecocide-level crimes into
the EU’s revised environmental crimes directive. If this passes through the
legislative process, then member states will be required to make ecocide a
crime through national law.
3)While causing
damage to the environment is already a crime in most countries, recognition of
ecocide elevates the most abominable cases to a crime.
4)In 2021, a panel of
criminal and environmental lawyers from around the world created a legal
definition for “ecocide” which is part of an ongoing effort by NGO Stop Ecocide
to add environmental damage to the list of international crimes at the
International Criminal Court.
5)The consequences of
environmental damage are listed in the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks
Report 2023, where climate change and biodiversity collapse are one of the top
five risks facing the world in the coming decade.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
===========================================
18)
Which of the following is correct :
1)Ukraine
: the Kakhovka dam
2)
An explosion destroyed the Kakhovka dam
where vast amounts of polluted water was unleashed downstream along the Dnipro
river, flooding dozens of settlements, killing dolphins at an alarming rate and
making farmlands unusable
3)Ukraine
: Dnipro river
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
==============================================
Questions on FCA
19)
Consider the following :
1) On August 22,2023 the Mizoram Assembly
unanimously passed a resolution opposing the Forest (Conservation) Amendment
Act, 2023, “to protect the rights and interest of the people of Mizoram”.
2)The amendment allows the diversion of forest land
for roads, railway lines or “strategic linear projects of national importance
and concerning national security” within 100 km of India’s international
borders or lines of control, without a forest clearance under the Forest
(Conservation) Act (FCA) 1980.
3)Most of India’s Northeast falls in this 100 km
range.
4) Nagaland Assembly may also face strident demands
to pass a resolution against the Amendment.
5)Tripura, Mizoram, and Sikkim — ruled by the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) or its allies — have also opposed the 100-km
exemption clause.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
20) Consider the following :
1)Special constitutional protections, such as
Article 371A for Nagaland and 371G for Mizoram, prohibit the application of any
law enacted by Parliament that impinges on Naga and Mizo customary law and
procedure, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources. Such laws can
be extended to these States only if their Legislative Assemblies decide thus in
a resolution.
2)In 1986, Nagaland extended the application of the
FCA “to government forests and such other forests and Wildlife Sanctuaries
under the control of [the] State Government”. Government forests make up only
2.71% of the State’s Recorded Forest Area. However, in December 1997, the Home
Ministry, in consultation with the Ministry of Law and Justice, confirmed to
the Union Environment Ministry that the FCA is covered under the term “land
resources” and is not applicable to Nagaland, as its Legislative Assembly had
not adopted any resolution to apply FCA to the State. Later, in November 1998,
the Environment Ministry contradicted itself, when it informed the Nagaland
government that FCA is indeed applicable to the State as clarified by the
Ministry of Law and Justice. Nevertheless, since 1980, the Environment Ministry
has not granted an FCA clearance to forests in Nagaland.
3)This is not so with Mizoram. In 1986, the Union
Territory became a State with the 53rd amendment of the Constitution, adding
Article 371G to the Constitution. It stipulated that all Central Acts in force
before 1986 are extended to the State, including the FCA. Moreover, the powers
of the Autonomous District Councils in the three Sixth Scheduled areas in
Mizoram don’t extend to reserved forests. So, the FCA covers 84.53% of forest
areas that are notified forests, and 6,630 ha have thus far received FCA
clearance.
4)Moreover, the FCA is applicable in the rest of
the Northeast — in Meghalaya and Tripura, the Sixth Schedule Areas within these
States, and in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Manipur. Arunachal Pradesh ranked
first among these States in FCA clearance (21,786.45 ha), followed by Tripura
(9,051 ha), Assam (5,261 ha), Manipur (3,604 ha), Sikkim (2,902 ha), and
Meghalaya (807 ha).
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
21)Consider the following about RFA (Recorded
Forest Area)?
1)Over a million hectares of forest have been
diverted nationwide under FCA since 1980.
2)FCA exists to deforest the forest, under the
Indian Forest Act 1927 or its State versions.
3) In 1996, the
Supreme Court expanded the term “forest land” in the FCA in the Godavarman case to “not only include ‘forest’
as understood in the dictionary sense, but also any area recorded as forest in
the Government record irrespective of the ownership”, thus extending the FCA to
unclassed forests. These are recorded forests but not notified as forests.
4)More than half of the Northeast is Recorded
Forest Area (RFA). Of this, 53% are unclassed forests controlled by
individuals, clans, village councils or communities, and governed by customary
law and procedures. The remainder is notified forest controlled by State Forest
Departments.
5)RFA ranges from 34.21% in Assam to 82.31%
in Sikkim with Mizoram having 35.48%, Meghalaya 42.34%, Nagaland 53.01%,
Arunachal Pradesh 61.55%, Manipur 78.01% and Tripura 60.02%. Of these, unclassed
forests range from nil in Sikkim to 97.29% in Nagaland, with 15.47% in
Mizoram, 33.43% in Assam, 42.96% in Tripura, 75.67% in Manipur and 88.15% in
Meghalaya.
6)The apex court’s 1996 order brought unclassed
forests under the FCA’s purview everywhere. There are also forests outside RFA,
neither recorded nor surveyed — 38.5% of the forest in Assam; 29% in Nagaland;
and 1.5% in Mizoram.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
22)Consider the following about Forest Rights Act
(FRA Act)(Forest land includes…………….) :
1)In the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act (FRA) 2006, “forest land”
includes unclassified forests, undemarcated forests, existing or deemed
forests, protected forests, reserved forests, Sanctuaries and National Parks.
This complied with the 1996 Supreme Court redefinition.
2)While this benefits most northeastern States, due
to the sizeable unclassed forests, the FRA also included a specific provision
in the list of rights: “rights which are recognised under any state law or laws
of any autonomous district council or autonomous regional council or which are
accepted as rights of tribal under any traditional or customary law of the
concerned tribes of any State.”
3)Nothing prevents these States from taking suo motu cognisance of these existing rights
and obtaining the concerned Gram Sabha approvals for issuing titles.
4)The Ministry of Tribal Affairs can also issue
legally enforceable directions under Section 12 of the FRA, paving the way for
this. It would add another layer of legal security to traditional community
tenurial rights over forests.
5)However, none of the Northeast States have
implemented FRA except for Assam and Tripura. The reasons include the FRA
being ‘irrelevant’ as communities, clans, chiefs and individuals own most of
the land, that their rights are already being enjoyed and a lack of
forest-dwellers who are totally forest dependent.
6)While the Mizoram Legislative Assembly resolved
on October 29, 2009, under Article 371G, to extend the FRA and its Rules with
effect from December 31, 2009, it did a U-turn on November 19, 2019, declaring
the FRA to not be relevant to the State since no claims for rights were
forthcoming. It also referred to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs declining to
sanction ₹10 lakh to implement the FRA.
7)The Nagaland Assembly, as required under Article
371A, is yet to decide whether it wants this law. A committee has been looking
into it for years now.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
23) Consider the following about protection of
forests :
1)The Environment Ministry mandated FRA
implementation and prior informed consent of the Gram Sabha in 2009 to
admit a forest diversion proposal.
2)The responsibility was delegated to the District
Collector, who ironically also headed the District Committee that
issues FRA titles. The Collectors’ certificate of FRA compliance in the
in-principle Stage I forest clearance was shifted to Stage II final clearance.
3)But the Ministry’s 2022 Forest Conservation Rules
eliminated compliance with the FRA before final approval altogether. Instead,
it said that State governments “shall issue order for diversion, assignment of
lease or dereservation as the case may be … after fulfillment and compliance”
with the FRA “including ensuring settlement of rights”.
4)Taking this further, States can formulate and
take legal measures to ensure mandatory fulfillment of the FRA before
recommending a forest diversion proposal, and ensuring Gram Sabha consent
before handing over forest land.
5)The Ministry of Tribal Affairs can also issue
legally enforceable directions under the FRA, or even enact a separate law, to
recognise and settle forest rights when forests are diverted for other purposes
and forest-dwellers are relocated, as forest rights fall squarely within its
Business Rules. This way, the States and the Tribal Affairs Ministry have a way
to provide tenurial security to forest-dwellers and protect the forests.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
================================================
QUESTIONS
RELATING TO GNO
24) Consider the following about Global Nuclear Order
(GNO):
1)To gain legitimacy, any global order needs to
fulfil two conditions. First, a convergence among the major powers of the day,
and, second, successfully presenting the outcome as a global public good to the
rest of the world. The global nuclear order (GNO) was no exception but, today, it
is under strain.
2)The GNO was created in the shadow of the Cold
War, with the U.S. and the U.S.S.R., leading the western and the Socialist
blocs, respectively.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) Both 1 and 2
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans
: c
25) Consider the following about Cuban Missile
Crisis :
1)Following the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis, when the
two came perilously close to launching a nuclear war, both U.S. President John
F. Kennedy and General Secretary Nikita Khrushchev understood two political
realities. First, as the two nuclear superpowers, they needed bilateral
mechanisms to prevent tensions from escalating to the nuclear level. And,
second, nuclear weapons are dangerous and, therefore, their spread should be
curbed. This convergence created the GNO.
2)During the Cuban crisis, a secret back-channel between
President Kennedy’s brother, Robert Kennedy and Soviet Ambassador Anatoly
Dobrynin, helped resolve the crisis. The first bilateral measure was the
hotline, established in 1963, to enable the leaders to communicate directly.
The hotline (later upgraded into nuclear risk reduction centers) was followed
by arms control negotiations as the two nuclear superpowers sought to manage
their nuclear arms race and maintain strategic stability.
3)To control proliferation, the U.S. and the
U.S.S.R. initiated multilateral negotiations in Geneva in 1965 on a treaty to
curb the spread of nuclear weapons. Three years later, the Nuclear
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) opened for signature. It began modestly with
less than 60 parties but today, it is widely described as the cornerstone of
the global nuclear order with 191 adherents.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
25)Consider the following about GNO and NPT :
1)The third element of the global nuclear order
came into existence in 1975.
2)India had chosen not to sign the NPT, and in
1974, stunned the world by conducting an underground peaceful nuclear
explosive, or PNE. Seven countries (the U.S., U.S.S.R, U.K., Canada, France,
Japan, and West Germany) held a series of meetings in London and concluded that
ad hoc export controls were urgently needed to ensure that nuclear technology,
transferred for peaceful purposes, not be used for PNEs.
3)The London Club (as it was originally known)
sounded inappropriate and later transformed into the Nuclear Suppliers Group,
consisting of 48 countries today, which observe common guidelines for exporting
nuclear and related dual-use materials, equipment, and technologies.
4) Though the Soviet Union and India enjoyed close
relations, having signed the Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty in 1971, the USSR
was committed to upholding the GNO, and a founding member of the London Club.
5)The GNO has held reasonably well, particularly on
two fronts. First, the taboo against nuclear weapons has held since 1945. It is
a matter of debate how far the U.S.-USSR arms control process helped preserve
the taboo or whether it was just plain luck, but the fact is that humanity has
survived 75 years of the nuclear age without blowing itself up.Second,
non-proliferation has been a success.
6)Despite dire predictions of more than 20
countries possessing nuclear weapons by the 1970s, (there were five in 1968 –
the U.S., U.S.S.R., U.K., France, and China), only four countries have since
gone nuclear, i.e., India, Israel, North Korea, and Pakistan. Even after the
Cold War ended, non-proliferation remained a shared objective and Moscow and
Washington cooperated to ensure that Belarus, Ukraine, and Kazakhstan that
hosted Soviet nuclear weapons and possessed some capabilities, were
denuclearised. In 1995, the NPT, originally concluded for 25 years, was
extended into perpetuity.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
26)Consider the following :
1) The U.S. faces a more assertive China,
determined to regain influence, regionally and globally. This rivalry is
different from the Cold War because both economies are closely intertwined and
further, and China is an economic and technological peer rival. China has
resented the U.S.’s naval presence in the South China and East China Seas and
since the last Taiwan Strait crisis in 1996, has steadily built up its naval
and missile capabilities.
2)Changing geopolitics has taken its toll on the
treaties between the U.S. and Russia.
3)In 2002, the U.S. withdrew from the
Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty and in 2019, from the Intermediate-Range
Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty on grounds that Russia was violating it.
3)The only remaining agreement, New START, will
lapse in 2026; its verification meetings were suspended during the COVID-19
outbreak and never resumed.
4) Strategic stability talks began in 2021
following the Geneva meeting between Presidents Joe Biden and Vladimir Putin,
but collapsed with the Ukraine war. Last year, Russia de-ratified the CTBT to
bring it on a par with the U.S., raising concerns about the resumption of
nuclear testing.
5)As U.S. relations with Russia went into a
nosedive, the U.S. is facing a new situation of two nuclear peer rivals who are
exploring new roles for more usable weapons. Moreover, Russian nuclear sabre
rattling to warn the North Atlantic Treaty Organization and the U.S. against
escalation in Ukraine has revived nuclear concerns. The old definitions of strategic
stability no longer hold.
6)During the 1970s, South Korea began to actively
consider a nuclear weapons programme, spurred by the U.S. withdrawal from
Vietnam. However, France withdrew its offer to supply a reprocessing plant to
South Korea under U.S. pressure in 1975-76 and South Korea was persuaded to
join the NPT. Recent opinion polls indicate a 70% support for developing a
national nuclear deterrent and 40% for reintroducing U.S. nuclear weapons
(withdrawn in 1991) on its territory.
7)Between 1977 to 1988, the U.S. actively subverted
Taiwan’s nuclear weapons programme as it stepped up a normalisation of ties
with China. As a nuclear victim, the Japanese public retains a strong
anti-nuclear sentiment but there is a shift, visible in Japan’s decision to
double its defence spending over next five years.
8)Created in the shadow of the Cold War, the GNO
has held reasonably well, but is facing pressures under changing geopolitics
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
===============================================
QUESTION
ON GREEN MINERALS
27) Consider the following ab out Green Minerals :
1)Ghana
on August 7, 2023 approved a new policy for the exploitation, management and regulation
of lithium and other green minerals in the country, to keep pace with
the rising global
demand for minerals critical for transitioning to clean
energy.
2)The
policy provides clear guidelines and a fiscal regime for mining so-called green
minerals, in a manner that ensures Ghana derives as much benefit as possible
from its resources.
3)It
insists on a higher level of local participation in the green minerals value
chain as opposed to the 10 per cent vested interest the state had currently in
mining entities, said Minister for Lands and Natural Resources.
4)The
principle that formed the basis of the policy is that exploitation of green
minerals must benefit Ghanaians who were the true owners of the resource
5)Often
referred to as “minerals of the future”, green minerals are metals and other
mineral resources that are needed to support the transition to clean energy
technologies aimed at reducing carbon emissions. These include — bauxite,
cobalt, copper, lithium, granite, manganese and nickel.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
1,2,3,4,5
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Either 1 or 3
Ans
: b
28)
Which of the following are known as Green Minerals?
1)
Often referred to as “minerals of the future”, green minerals are metals and
other mineral resources that are needed to support the transition to clean
energy technologies aimed at reducing carbon emissions.
2)These
include — bauxite, cobalt, copper, lithium, granite, manganese and nickel.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1 and 2
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
=============================================
QUESTIONS
ON OMICRAN SUBVARIANT JN .1. and “Flip”
mutation
29) Consider the following :
1)The
omicron subvariant JN.1. is likely to soon become the dominant lineage of the
SARS-CoV-2 virus worldwide, according to researchers at the University of
Tokyo.
2)The
subvariant has a mutation in its spike protein, L455S, also called a “FLip”
mutation.
3)Experts
said that a dominant strain need not necessarily indicate that it is more
dangerous, as it is the nature of the virus to mutate.
4)On
December 18, 2023, JN.1, was designated a separate variant of interest (VOI)
after a rapid surge in recent weeks.
5)
JN.1 is a descendant of the BA.2.86 lineage, which first emerged in August
2023.
6)
BA.2.86 carries more than 30 mutations in the spike protein. It is distinct
from the other omicron XBB lineages, such as EG.5.1 and HK.3 currently in
circulation.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
30)
Consider the following about “Flip” mutations :
1)JN.1
(BA.2.86.1.1) evolved out of BA.2.86 in late 2023. Besides L455S in its spike
protein, JN.1 is identical to BA.2.86. Similarly, the EG.5 sublineage variant
HK.3 acquired the L455F mutation.
2)L455S
and L455F are called “FLip” mutations because they switch the positions of
amino acids F and L on the spike protein, increasing their transmissibility.
3)Another
example of the “FLip” mutation is F456L, which was found in several XBB
descendant strains developed this year, such as XBB.1.5.10, FE.1, and FD.1.1.
4)Researchers
at Peking University in Beijing ascertained in The Lancet Infectious Diseases, “With
just one additional receptor binding domain mutation (L455S) compared to its
predecessor BA.2.86, the JN.1 variant rapidly became predominant in France,
surpassing both BA.2.86 and the so-called FLip (L455F+F456L) strains.”
5)Towards
the end of November 2023, JN.1 surpassed HK.3 in France and Spain.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
31)
Consider the following about ACE2 :
1)A
single F456L or L455F substitution dampens the receptor binding capacity of
angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2).
2)ACE2
is a protein found in the epithelial cells in different parts of the body, such
as the lungs, heart, and kidneys.
3)SARS-CoV-2
virus binds to ACE2 as an entry point through the virus’ spike-like protein on
its surface.
4)When
either XBB.1.5+F456L or BA.2.86 + S: L455S are added, there is a much stronger
binding to ACE2 and less protection against natural antibodies.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
32)Consider
the folloiwng about reproductive number (Re) of the Omicron subvariant JN.1 :
1)The
effective reproductive number (Re) of the omicron subvariant JN.1 in France,
the United Kingdom and Spain is higher than other new variants (BA.2.86.1 and
HK.3) with a growth advantage. Researchers at the University of Tokyo used a
Bayesian multinomial logistic model to study the virology of the subvariant
virus.
2)The
Re refers to the number of potential new infections that could spread through
an infectious individual in a population. It is an estimate used to gauge the
transmissibility of a virus in an epidemic.
3)It
appears that the virus could potentially evade vaccination. Another study by
BIOPIC studied individuals recovering after XBB infections. One cohort had 27
participants who experienced post-vaccination XBB breakthrough infections and
another had patients reinfected with XBB after BA.5 or BF.7 breakthrough infections.
Compared to BA.2.86, JN.1 displayed a significantly enhanced ability to evade
immunity.
4)“JN.1’s
continued growth suggests that the variant is either more transmissible or
better at evading our immune systems than other circulating variants. It is too
early to know whether or to what extent JN.1 will cause an increase in
infections or hospitalisations,” the CDC said.
5)Despite
the upsurge, globally, EG.5 remains the most reported VOI but has shown
declining trends over the past few weeks.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
===========================================
QUESTIONS
ON ‘MAPUTO PROTOCOL’
33) Consider the following about ‘Maputo Protocol’:
1)There
has been some progress on gender equality in African countries thanks to the
Maputo Protocol, but it has been uneven, according to a new report.
2)The
Protocol is considered one of the world’s most progressive legal frameworks for
women’s rights and was launched 20 years ago.
3)A
group of civil society organisations, Solidarity for African Women’s Rights
Coalition; Human rights organisation Equality Now and advocacy platform Make
Every Woman Count released the landmark report, 20 Years of the Maputo Protocol: Where
are we now? On July 13, 2023.
4)In
July 2003, the African Union (AU) adopted the Maputo Protocol. Of the 55 member
states, 44 have ratified or acceded to the Protocol on gender equality,
becoming one of the most ratified instruments in the AU, the analysis stated.
5)But
despite these efforts, full domestication of the Protocol provisions into
national legislature has, in many cases, been slow or ineffective. Some African
States are yet to ratify or accede to the Protocol, said the report.
6)The
Protocol has a target of universal ratification in Africa by 2028. However,
with just five years until the target year, there are still 12 countries that
are yet to ratify this important legal instrument.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
===============================================
QUESTION
ON NOBEL PRIZE IN CHEMISTRY, 2023
34) Consider the following about Nobel Prize in Chemistry
2023 (quantum dots , nanoparticles) :
1)The
Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 rewards the discovery and development of quantum
dots, nanoparticles so tiny that their size determines their properties.
2)These
smallest components of nanotechnology (quantum dots , nanoparticles) now spread
their light from televisions and LED lamps, and can also guide surgeons when
they remove tumour tissue, among many other things.
3)Everyone
who studies chemistry learns that an element’s properties are governed by how
many electrons it has. However, when matter shrinks to nano-dimensions quantum
phenomena arise; these are governed by the size of the matter.
4)The
Nobel Laureates in Chemistry 2023 have succeeded in producing particles so
small that their properties are determined by quantum phenomena. The particles,
which are called quantum dots, are now of great importance in nanotechnology.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
35)Consider
the following about Quantum dots :
1)“Quantum
dots have many fascinating and unusual properties.
2)Importantly,
they have different colours depending on their size” .
3)Physicists
had long known that in theory size-dependent quantum effects could arise in
nanoparticles, but at that time it was almost impossible to sculpt in
nanodimensions.
4)
Therefore, few people believed that this knowledge would be put to practical use.
However, in the early 1980s, Alexei Ekimov succeeded in creating size-dependent
quantum efects in coloured glass. The colour came from nanoparticles of copper
chloride and Ekimov demonstrated that the particle size affected the colour of
the glass via quantum effects.
5)A
few years later, Louis Brus was the first scientist in the world to prove
size-dependent quantum effects in particles floating freely in a fluid.
6)
In 1993, Moungi Bawendi revolutionised the chemical production of quantum dots,
resulting in almost perfect particles. This high quality was necessary for them
to be utilised in applications.
7)Quantum
dots now illuminate computer monitors and television screens based on QLED
technology. They also add nuance to the light of some LED lamps, and
biochemists and doctors use them to map biological tissue.
8)Quantum
dots are thus bringing the greatest benefit to humankind. Researchers believe
that in the future they could contribute to flexible electronics, tiny sensors,
thinner solar cells and encrypted quantum communication – so we have just
started exploring the potential of these tiny particles.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
================================================
QUESTIONS
ON XPoSat SATELLITE
36) Consider the following about XPOSAT Satellite and
(POEM-3 expereiment) :
1)ISRO's
PSLV-C58 has launched XPOSAT Satellite into an Eastward low inclination orbit
on January 01, 2024 09:10 Hrs IST.
2)After
injection of XPOSAT, the PS4 stage will be re-started twice to reduce the orbit
into 350 km circular orbit to maintain in 3-axis stabilized mode for Orbital
Platform (OP) experiments.
3) The
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3) experiment will be executed meeting
the objective of 10 identified payloads, supplied by ISRO and IN-SPACe.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
37) Consider the following about XPoSat :
1)XPoSat
(X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is the first dedicated scientific satellite from
ISRO to carry out research in space-based polarisation measurements of X-ray
emission from celestial sources.
2) The
Satellite configuration is modified from the IMS-2 bus platform.
3)The
Configuration of the mainframe systems are derived based on the heritage of IRS
satellites. It carries two payloads namely POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in
X-rays) and XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing).
4)
POLIX is realized by Raman Research Institute and XSPECT is by Space Astronomy
Group of URSC.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
38)
Consider the following about EXpoSat and the objectives of this mission :
1)To measure polarisation of
X-rays in the energy band 8-30keV emanating from about 50 potential cosmic
sources through Thomson Scattering by POLIX payload.
2)To carry out long term
spectral and temporal studies of cosmic X-ray sources in the energy band
0.8-15keV by XSPECT payload.
3)To carry out polarisation
and spectroscopic measurements of X-ray emissions from cosmic sources by POLIX
and XSPECT payloads respectively in the common energy band.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
==================================================
QUESTIONS
ON CIRCULATION OF WATER
39) Consider the following about Circulation of Water /
water cycles :
1)The
circulation of water in the Earth-Atmosphere system has been significantly
impacted by climate change and human activities, according to the World
Meteorological Organization (WMO).
2)The
effect on the hydrological cycle are leading to droughts and extreme rainfall
events and the erratic water cycles unleashed widespread disruption, burdening
livelihoods and economies.
3)The
ongoing melting of snow, ice and glaciers compounded the threat, exacerbating
the risk of extreme weather events such as floods. These events cast long-term
consequences on the water security of millions.
The
findings of the report are critical, as nearly four billion people are
already experiencing severe water scarcity for at least a month every
year.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
40)
Consider the following about Asian Water Tower (AWT) (Third Pole, just like
North Pole and South Pole ) :
1)The
Asian Water Tower (AWT), the world’s largest reservoir of ice and snow after
the Arctic and Antarctic regions, saw significant glacial melting in 2022.
2)This
altered the natural downward flow of major rivers — the Indus, Amu
Darya, Yangtze and Yellow River — in the region, the document pointed out.
3)AWT
covers the Third Pole, which includes the Tibetan Plateau, the Himalayas, the
Karakorum, the Hindu Kush, the Pamirs and the Tien Shan Mountains.
4)The
increasing pace of glacial melting in AWT, which provides a
reliable water supply to almost two billion people, highlighted the deepening
influence of climate change on regional water resources.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
41)Consider
the following :
1)“Glaciers
and ice cover are retreating before our eyes. 2)Rising temperatures have
accelerated — and also disrupted — the water cycle”
3)“A
warmer atmosphere holds more moisture. We are seeing much heavier precipitation
episodes and flooding. And at the opposite extreme, more evaporation, dry soils
and more intense droughts,”
4)The
risks of such glacial events were evident in India as well. North
Sikkim witnessed devastating glacial lake outburst floods after the
South Lhonak Lake burst on October 4, 2023.
5)From
2000-2018, the total glacier mass in the AWT decreased by approximately 4.3 per
cent. This led to a significant reduction in snow cover, shortening the
snowmelt season. The number, total area and volume of glacier lakes have
increased rapidly as a whole, pushing the lake’s water by approximately 16 per
cent of the total volume, said the report.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
42)Consider
the following about snow cover in the Alps :
1)The
snow cover in the Alps remained well below the 30-year average during the 2023
spring despite late snowfalls in May, as observed in the basins feeding the
four major rivers — Rhine, Rhone, Danube and Po.
2)The
situation was more severe in the Po River, where water levels were
seven feet lower than usual, according to media reports.
3)Five
regions in Italy were under a drought emergency as the region faced the highest
drought severity in 2022.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
43)
Consider the following :
1)
The volume of water flowing through the rivers was lower than the normal.
2)In
2022, over 50 per cent of the global catchment areas experienced deviations
from normal river discharge conditions.
3)For
instance, in Europe, the flow of rivers has decreased in summer owing to a
major heatwave, drought and La Nina.
4)
Now, with El Nino in 2023, the hydrological cycle is likely to be impacted
further, warned the document.
5)The Horn
of Africa experienced severe drought, affecting 21 million people’s
food security. As a result, the volume of water in rivers flowing through the
region was below the normal in 2022.
6)The
Congo River and the entire catchment of the Nile River in Central Africa
exhibited reduced river discharge.
7)As
rivers dried up, the impacts were also visible across water reservoirs. Over 60
per cent of major water reservoirs saw below or normal inflow. This challenges
water availability in an increasingly changing climate.
However,
a smaller proportion of basins exhibited above-normal and much-above-normal
conditions, said the document. This was evident from the cases from Africa
mentioned in the report.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
44)
Consider the following :
1)Areas
like the Niger Basin and coastal areas of South Africa saw above-average
discharge and major flood events in 2022.
2)For
instance, the catastrophic floods and landslides in the provinces of KwaZulu-Natal and
Eastern Cape after the country witnessed exceptionally heavy rainfall in 2022.
3)Given
such contrasting and overwhelming water-related disasters, including drought
and floods, water management and monitoring lies at the heart of the global
Early Warnings For All initiative that ensures everyone on Earth is
protected by early warnings by 2027.
4)“Many
countries targeted for priority action in Early Warnings for All suffered from
major floods or droughts in 2022 and no country had timely and accurate
hydrological data available to support evidence-based decision-making and early
action” .
5)Mid-way
to 2030, when the world is far off from achieving sustainable development goal
(SDG) 6: Clean Water and Sanitation, the report’s findings contribute towards
informed decision-making relevant to the Sustainable development goals.
6)The
report emphasised SDG 13 (climate adaptation) by focusing on climate-related
impacts on water systems and calling for mitigation actions.
Which
of the above is / are correct ?
(a)
1 only
(b)
2 only
(c
) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(d
) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : c
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