CIVIL SERVICES
PRELIMS, 2024
Model Questions (for
GS Paper )
Set No. 19
{Prepared on 22 .5.2024 }
Also useful for
TSPSC GROUP I Prelims 2024
For
Study purpose
Prepared by :Praturi
Potayya Sarma,MA(OU),LLB(OU),PGDIRPM
CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS
NOTE: IMPORTANT POINTS ARE PRINTED IN BOLD LETTERS
1)Consider the following about Humayun :
1)Humayun was in luck in Agra. He laid his hands on the famous
Kohinoor here. Wrote Babur in Baburnama (abridged
and edited by Dilip Hiro), “The reputation of the diamond, later to be called
Kohinour (Mountain of Light), was that every appraiser had estimated its value
at two-and-a-half days’ food for the whole world. Humayun offered the famous
diamond to me when I arrived at Agra. I just gave it back to him.”
2)The
jewel remained with the Mughals before it fell into the hands of Maharaja
Ranjit Singh during the time of latter Mughals. Shortly afterwards, the British
annexed Punjab, and the jewel was sent to Queen Victoria. Incidentally, Humayun
had the khutba read in his name in
Agra on December 29, 1530, four days after Babur had passed away. After his
death, Babur came to be called Firdaus Makani or the Dweller of Paradise. Was
it because he spent the last years of his life in Agra? Nobody knows, suffice
to say, Agra was to Mughals nothing short of a political paradise
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
2)Consider the following :
1)For Akbar, it really came close. With Agra as his capital,
Akbar ruled for almost 50 years, and even had the perspicacity to build Ibadat
Khana in the neighbouring Fatehpur Sikri in 1575 besides the fort in Agra. For
all his military prowess, Akbar had a spiritual bent of mind. As Manimugdha
Sharma writes in Allahu Akbar, “Ibadat
Khana was a bid to end conflicts among rival religions by creating a middle
ground...Badaoni says the building was constructed around what was once the
room of Sheikh Abdullah Niyazi Sirhind, a disciple of Shaikh Salim Chishti who
later became a devotee of Lord Shiva.”
2)Ibadat Khan had space for scholars of all faiths. Noted
historian Prof Ali Nadeem Rezavi, in his book, Fatehpuri
Sikri Revisited, recalls, “Abul Fazl gives a list of the faiths that
were represented. There were Sunnis, Shias, Brahmins, Jains, Charvakas,
Christians, Jews, Sabians, Zoroastrians and others.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
3)Consider the following :
1)With all the glory and wisdom of the Mughals, Agra remained
the second capital of India from 1504 to 1658. Abul Fazl called it Darul
Khilafat, and Delhi was Darul Sultanat.
2)Besides the Great Mughals, Afghans and the Lodis ruled from
here. Yet Agra today is renowned for being the last resting place of Arjumand
Bano Begum, Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan’s wife, better known as Mumtaz Mahal. The
queen bore 14 children and died while giving birth to the 14th child
in 1631. Her last hours were well described by Mullah Abdul Hamid Lahori in the
Badshah Nama and Mohammed Saleh in Amal-e-Saleh. Mumtaz’s body was initially
interred in a temporary grave in the garden of Raja Man Singh.
3)Inside the Taj Mahal, essentially a garden tomb, the empress
was to rest in the centre and her husband joined by her side in 1666. The work
for the mausoleum started in 1632.
4)Ismail Khan of Turkey built the two-shell dome. Lall recalls,
“The Tarikh-i-Taj Mahal ascribes passages from the Quran, inscribed in Naskh
characters on different parts of the monument, to the celebrated calligraphist,
Amanat Khan Shirazi.
5)The mastermason was Muhammad Hanif from Baghdad who was paid
₹1,000 a month. Kayam Khan, the pinnacle maker, who was from Lahore, was paid
₹695….The Badshah Nama of Abdul Hamid Lahori puts the cost of the completed
monument at ₹50 lakh.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
4)Consider the following wildlife or zoological diplomacy
:
1)Close
on the heels of the project that translocated cheetahs from Namibia, the Indian
government is considering a proposal from Colombo to export a number of gaurs,
or Indian bisons, to Sri Lanka to revive the population of gavaras that have
been extinct in the island since the end of the 17th century.
2)If the project is cleared, it would be the first such
agreement between India and Sri Lanka, and part of a global trend of “wildlife
or zoological diplomacy”, say experts
3)Experts
say that while “zoological diplomacy” had been practised worldwide, they draw a
distinction between “gifts or loans” of animals in captivity to translocation
and reintroduction of a species, particularly between neighbouring countries
with similar eco-systems
Sources said the Ministry
of External Affairs (MEA), which received the request in August, has now
forwarded it to the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF), “seeking
comments” on the proposal to transport at least six specimens, including a bull
and three to five cows. According to the proposal, the Sri Lankan Department of
4)Zoological Gardens would then carry out “captive breeding a herd of about a
dozen specimens over a five-year period before trial reintroduction to the wild
could take place in accordance with [internationally mandated] guidelines for
reintroductions”.
S.P.
Yadav, Director, National Tiger Conservation Authority, said the proposal was
being studied. “We’ll have to evaluate if the conditions for translocation are
right, such that the animal can sustainably thrive over there,” he told,
estimating the evaluation could take a few months.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
5)Consider the following :
1)India
will officially assume the chairmanship of Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) on
January 1, 2023.
2)On
December 1, 2022, at the 26th annual plenary of the Wassenaar arrangement in
Vienna, Ambassador of Ireland handed over the chairmanship to India’s
Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the UN, Jaideep Mazumdar
3)The Wassenaar Arrangement is an elite club of countries
which subscribe to arms export controls, similar to the Nuclear Suppliers Group
and the Missile Technology Control Regime.
4)The body came into being in 1996 to succeed the Cold
War-era Coordinating Committee for Multilateral Export Controls. The name comes
from Wassenaar, a suburb of The Hague, where the agreement to start such a
multi-lateral cooperation was reached in 1995.
5)The
Wassenaar Arrangement is seen by many as a successor to the erstwhile
Coordinating Committee for Multilateral Export Controls, or COCOM
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
6)Consider the following :
1)“The (U.S.) Inflation Reduction Act should make us reflect on
how we can improve our state aid frameworks and adapt them to a new global
environment,”
2)The 27-country bloc fears that the U.S. $430 billion Inflation
Reduction Act with its generous tax breaks may lure away EU businesses and
disadvantage European companies, from car manufacturers to makers of green
technology.
3)The topic is one of several on the agenda of the EU-U.S. Trade
and Technology Council meeting on December 5.
4)Participants include U.S. Secretary of State Antony Blinken,
Commerce Secretary Gina Raimondo and U.S. Trade Representative Katherine Tai,
along with European Commission Executive Vice Presidents Valdis Dombrovskis and
Margrethe Vestager.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
7)Consider the following :
1)The United States
earlier announced $810 million in new funding for Pacific islands at a summit
with President Joe Biden amid inroads by China in the strategic but sparsely
populated region.
2)The White House said
$600 million will be in the form of a 10-year package to clean up and develop
dirty waters to support the tuna industry, while the United States will also
expand climate and development aid and its diplomatic presence.
3)Mr. Biden later (29.9.2022) will address the first-ever
Washington summit of Pacific Island nations, including 12 heads of state or
government, in hopes of using a personal touch to reconnect with a region that
has been tied closely to the United States since the Second World War. With the
U.S. until now often seen as taking the region for granted, China has asserted
itself strongly in recent years through investment, police training and, most
controversially, a security pact with the Solomon Islands.
4)The Biden administration
also announced that the United States would recognise :-
5)Cook Islands and Niue, a
self-governing territory whose foreign and defence policies and currency are
linked to New Zealand.
6)The
step will allow the United States to increase its diplomatic footprint in the
Cook Island and Niue, which have fewer than 20,000 inhabitants
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
8)Consider the following :
1)Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi, who initially dismissed the
Quad as an idea that was as transient “as sea foam”, also struck a harder tone
earlier this year, when he equated the U.S., Australia, India, Japan Quad
grouping with the “Five Eyes” intelligence alliance involving the Australia,
New Zealand, Canada, the U.S. and U.K. and the AUKUS (Australia-U.K.-U.S.)
defence pact.
2)“The U.S. Indo-Pacific strategy is becoming a byword for bloc
politics,” he said during China’s annual Parliament session. “It professes
desire for international cooperation, but in reality is stoking regional
rivalry.
3)From Five Eyes and Quad to AUKUS... It is by no means a
blessing but a sinister move. The real goal for the Indo-Pacific strategy is to
establish an Indo-Pacific version of NATO.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
9)Consider the following :
1)External Affairs
Minister S Jaishankar planned to visit Washington DC from September 25 to
28,2022 (news) to hold talks with U.S.
Secretary of State Antony Blinken, the Ministry of External Affairs announced
on Saturday. The interaction between the two will take place after the High
Level Week at the 77th Session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA),
where Mr. Jaishankar will lead the Indian delegation from September 18 to 24.
2)The visit to Washington
DC will provide India an opportunity to take up the latest announcement from
the U.S. of $450-million package that would be used to modernise the F-16
fighter jet fleet of Pakistan. Senior Indian officials have already conveyed
India’s displeasure on the matter but a high-level conversation on the issue is
awaited.
3)The interaction will be
part of India’s continuous engagement of major dialogue partners around
difficult issues like energy security against the backdrop of the Ukraine
crisis and tension in Taiwan.
4)As part of India’s
campaign for reform of the UN Security Council, the Minister will be hosting a
meeting in New York with his G4 counterparts from Brazil, Japan and Germany.
The G4 partners have been championing the expansion of the UNSC by increasing
the number of seats from 15 to 25.
5)Mr. Jaishankar will also
attend the High Level Meeting of the L.69 Group on “Reinvigorating
Multilateralism and Achieving Comprehensive Reform of the UN Security Council.”
The L69 group consists of developing
countries from Asia, Africa, Latin America, the Caribbean and Small Island
Developing States that are focused on the reform of the UNSC.
6)On September 24, Mr.
Jaishankar will address an event — “India@75: Showcasing India UN Partnership
in Action”, which will highlight India’s contribution in the field of
South-South Cooperation.
7)He will represent India
at ministerials of the Quad, IBSA (India-Brazil-South Africa), BRICS, CELAC
(Community of Latin American and Caribbean States) and CARICOM (Caribbean
Community). Mr. Jaishankar will address the UNGA on September 24,2022.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
10)Consider the following :
1)Reform of the United
Nations has been a central theme of External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar’s
visit to the United Nations this week, and on
22.9.2022 , he met with his counterparts from Germany, Brazil and Japan
under The Group of Four (G4) banner following the BRICS meeting. The group is
primarily focused on UN Security Council (UNSC) reform, and permanent membership
for G4 members. They reiterated their commitment to pushing forward reform and
expressed dissatisfaction at the lack of progress.
2)“Reiterated our joint
commitment to work towards text based negotiations that leads to Reformed
Multilateralism. Will continue our cooperation towards this goal,” Mr.
Jaishankar tweeted after the meeting. India is currently a non-permanent member
of the Council.
3)In addition to
reiterating their support for each other’s bids to become permanent members of
the UNSC, the G4 also reiterated its support for African countries being
represented in a permanent and non-permanent capacity. The G4 felt that the UN
decision making bodies needed to be urgently reformed as global issues
were increasingly complex and interconnected, a joint press statement from the
group said. The “inability” of the UNSC to “effectively” address these problems
“vividly demonstrate[s] the urgent need” for UNSC reform, the statement said.
4)U.S. President Joe Biden
emphasized its support for expanding permanent and non-permanent seats on the
Council, during his UNGA address on Wednesday. However, State Department
spokesperson Ned Price had said in 2021 that the U.S. supports expansion of
body provided it “does not alter or expand the veto”.
5) G4 ministers expressed
concern that the 76th Session of the UN General Assembly did not make
“meaningful progress” in the Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN), which,
according to the G4, was constrained by a lack of transparency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
11)Consider the following :
(based on June, 2022 news)
1)Britain’s Labour party officially announced plans to abolish the country’s unelected
legislative chamber, the House of Lords, and replace it with an elected
chamber, if the party is elected.
2)The announcement was included in a larger report of 40
proposals, titled, ‘A New Britain: Renewing Our Democracy and Rebuilding Our
Economy’, written by a commission led by former U.K. Prime Minister Gordon
Brown.
3)“Look, I think the House of Lords is indefensible. Anybody who
looks at the House of Lords would struggle to say that it should be kept,”
Labour leader Keir Starmer, who commissioned the report, told the BBC on Monday
morning.
4)Currently
the House of Lords, which traces its origins back to the 11th century, consists
of life peers, ‘spiritual’ peers (church officials) and hereditary peers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
12)Consider the following :
1)The justification
for Russia’s invasion of Ukraine in February will long be debated. Every big
power has fears of being surrounded. On its historically vulnerable western
front, Russia had one supportive neighbour, six North Atlantic Treaty
Organization (NATO) adversaries, and two who are ambiguously inclined, while
Ukraine’s relations with the European Union (EU) and NATO were always a matter
of contention.
2)After the
Putin-Biden Geneva encounter in mid-2021, the high intensity of interactions
between NATO members and Russia raised hopes of a detente, but Russian
President Vladimir Putin chose invasion over negotiation, ignoring the degraded
and inexperienced state of his armed forces, Ukraine’s military being the
biggest in Europe with 2,00,000 men, 6,00,000 reserves, 1,000 tanks and 130
aircraft, Ukraine’s willingness to resist, and NATO’s determination to punish
Russia
3)The current Ukraine
counter-offensive that claims to have retaken 6,500 square kilometres and
driven Russian forces back to the Kharkiv border, led to the announcement by
Mr. Putin of holding a referendum in the occupied provinces of Luhansk,
Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson (on joining Russia), mobilising
3,00,000 Russian reservists, and threatening to use nuclear weapons. Ukraine and
NATO regard these actions as evidence of Russian weakness, noting that an army
in retreat loses morale rapidly, and Russian public opinion is highly prone to
mood swings
4)At a grand ceremony in Moscow on Friday(29.9.2022), Russia
will formally annex four regions of Ukraine — Kherson, Zaporizhzhia, Donetsk,
and Lugansk — that its troops seized, the Kremlin has said, after it suggested
using nuclear weapons to defend the territories. The threats from Russian
officials have not deterred a sweeping counter-offensive from Kyiv, which has
been pushing back Russian troops in the east.
The four territories
create a crucial land corridor between Russia and the Crimean peninsula,
annexed by Moscow in 2014.
5)But the Kremlin
said it “needed to clarify” the exact
borders of Kherson and Zaporizhzhya — neither fully controlled by Moscow’s
forces — that it intends to annex.
Together, all five regions including Crimea,
make up around 20% of Ukraine, whose forces in recent weeks have been clawing
back wins as part of a counter-offensive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
13)Consider the following :
1)With a trumpet fanfare
and gun salutes, Charles III was officially proclaimed King at a pomp-filled
ceremony , at which he pledged to emulate his late mother Queen Elizabeth II
and serve for the rest of his life.
2)A court official wearing
a feathered bicorn hat declared Charles “our only lawful and rightful” monarch
from the balcony of St James’s Palace after a historic Accession Council
meeting of senior royals, clergy and government.
3)The centuries-old
tradition of the council was televised live for the first time as it officially
announced the 73-year-old King Charles as monarch after seven decades as heir
apparent.
4)King Charles
automatically became monarch upon the Queen’s death aged 96 , but the
proclamation is the latest step in the setpiece 10-day programme building up to
her state funeral.
5)An emotional King
Charles set the tone for his reign in a televised address in which he hailed his “darling mama” for her
“unswerving devotion” during her record-breaking seven decades on the
throneKing Charles looking pensive as he arrived at Buckingham Palace for the
first time as king made the front page image on The Independent, The Guardian
and The Times, which also carried the words “God Save the King”.
6)King Charles also named
his elder son and heir Prince William, 40, as the new Prince of Wales, while
expressing love for his younger son Harry and daughter-in-law Meghan.
7)The move means Prince
William’s wife Kate assumes the Princess of Wales title once held by his mother
and King Charles’ ex-wife, the late Princess Diana.
But
in an unannounced move, the two brothers emerged with their wives to speak to
well-wishers outside Windsor Castle outside London
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
14)Consider the following :
1)The U.S.-India Trade Policy
Forum (TPF) has been scheduled for November 8 in Washington DC. U.S. trade officials are arriving in New
Delhi next week to finalise issues for discussion, an Indian government
official told.
2)A few weeks ahead of
this meeting, it appears that that the gains are most likely going to be modest
and incremental in the immediate future, given the structural differences in
both economies and political considerations in India and the U.S. — both of
which have general elections in 2024.
3)The 12th TPF was held in
New Delhi in November 2021, after a hiatus of four years, delivering some gains
over the past twelve months, such as the resumption of sales of Indian mangoes
and pomegranate arils to the U.S. following the pandemic, and the appearance of
U.S. cherries on the Indian market.
4)Officials from the
Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR), Christopher Wilson and Brendan
Lynch, were in New Delhi in August – but the visit was not formally billed an
‘intercessional’.
5)Commerce Minister Piyush
Goyal will lead the Indian delegation to Washington next month with the USTR,
Katherine Tai, leading the American delegation. On the Indian side, the
requests are concentrated in the services sector, while for the U.S. side goods
market access and the policy environment – such as data laws and now the
imminent changes to India’s competition law- are of interest.
“A mismatch between
bilateral ambition and sensitivity has been an issue at times. The U.S.’s
ambitions are commensurate with what you would expect for a highly developed
economy,” former Commerce Secretary Anup Wadhawan, who retired in 2021, told.
6)He was referring to the
U.S. interest in negotiating on agricultural and non-agricultural market
access, digital trade, competition and so forth.
“We are a developing
economy and have a number of sensitivities,” he added, pointing to the need,
for instance, to protect agriculture, given the large low-income rural
population that is dependent on it. “These needs need to be respected and
factored in,” he said.
7)For India, many of the
historical requests on services are met with responses from USTR that point to
other wings of U.S. government, such as the Congress, or to other agencies and
departments, having ownership of the issue.
8)For the U.S. side, offering
one to one market access for goods has been difficult.
“India has great access to
the U.S. market,” a U.S. Government (USG) official told, pointing to the lower
tariffs in the US market.
Going into this year’s TPF
, they are looking at “a number of products” in the agricultural space as “win
wins”.
9)Among these, for the
Americans, is the resolution of exports of alfalfa hay to India – an issue that
is pending from last year’s TPF, the official said. The U.S. is also keen to
supplement India’s ethanol and DDGS ( an animal feed product) production, with
its supplies, in light of India’s blending goals under the 2022 National
Biofuels Policy.
India’s requests have
included high skilled worker visa numbers, fees, and recently, visa processing
times; social security portability across countries; and 232
tariffs (i.e., tariffs imposed during the Trump administration on steel and
aluminium) ; the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), a preferential market
access program offered by the U.S. to some developing countries.
10)For now, GSP had been
of interest in previous rounds of talks. Former U.S. President Donald Trump ,
whose approach to trade was largely guided by differentials in overall trade
balance, had taken India out of the program in June 2019.
However, New Delhi
has recently signalled that the issue is no longer of significant
interest. In Los Angeles last month for a ministerial meeting on the Indo
Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF), a Biden administration initiative for the
region, Mr Goyal had said that none of India’s exports were affected by the
loss of GSP. He also said that the issue had been discussed in recent times.
“GoI continues to raise
GSP, so it is of interest,” the U.S. official said.
For
now GSP is off the table because the program has itself expired for all
countries and has to be reauthorised by the U.S. Congress
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
15)Consider the following :
1)Nearly 100 people have been killed and scores injured in
violent border clashes between Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan over the clashes
2)A ceasefire, brokered by Russia, was agreed . The two
landlocked countries share a 1,000-km long border, a large part of which is disputed.
There have been flare-ups in the past as well over sharing water and land
resources
3)Ferghana
valley continues to be a site of struggle and frequent violent outbursts, with
the location consisting primarily of Tajiks, Kyrgyz, and Uzbeks, who have
historically shared common sociological specificities, economic activities, and
religious practices
4)Clashes regularly
erupt between the two former Soviet republics, as around half their 970-km
border is still to be demarcated
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
16)Consider the following :
1)The violent border
clashes between Armenia and Azerbaijan have raised fears of another war in the
Caucasus.
2)The countries had
fought a disastrous weeks-long war in 2020 over the disputed Nagorno-Karabakh
region in which Azerbaijan made gains before Russia forced a ceasefire.
3)Tensions remained
with the occasional flare-ups, but Tuesday’s clashes were the deadliest since
2020. Armenia and Azerbaijan have accused each other of provocation, but the
fighting, as per initial reports, took place on the Armenian side and Armenia
took heavier casualties. It may not be a coincidence that the crisis broke out
at a time when Russia, Armenia’s security ally, has been struggling to hold its
gains in Ukraine.
4)Armenia is a member
of the Russia-led Collective Security Treaty Organisation, whose NATO-like
charter stipulates that an attack against one member could be treated as an
attack against all. Armenia had turned to Russia for help, but Moscow’s
response was rather cautious — it called for de-escalation and claimed that it
had brokered another ceasefire
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
17)Consider the following :
1)The dispute over
Nagorno-Karabakh goes back to the pre-Soviet era.
2)When the Soviet
Union was formed, the Armenian majority enclave became part of the Azerbaijan
Soviet Republic. When the Soviet Union collapsed and Armenia and Azerbaijan
became independent republics, the clashes resurfaced. Armenian rebels in
Nagorno-Karabakh fought off the Azeri forces and joined Armenia.
3)But Azerbaijan never
gave up its claims; nor did the two countries reach any peace agreement over
the enclave. Unlike in the 1990s, Azerbaijan now looks economically and
politically stronger. In the 2020 conflict, it got military and diplomatic
assistance from Turkey while Russia was reluctant to get dragged into the
conflict on behalf of Armenia. Now, Russia’s ability to project power in its
neighbourhood appears to be further limited on account of Ukraine. On the other
side, gas-rich Azerbaijan, which still has the backing of Turkey, is being courted
by the EU for increased gas supplies. These regional developments seem to have
emboldened Azerbaijan. But its ambition could be costly for everyone.
4)Russia will find it
difficult to retain its influence in Central Asia and Caucasus if it continues
to ignore Armenia. At the same time, getting dragged into another battlefront
would be challenging. A conflict in the Caucasus would further destabilise the
global energy markets, hurting all economies, particularly energy-starved
Europe. For Turkey, which is trying to balance between Russia and the West over
Ukraine, another war in its neighbourhood would further complicate its foreign
policy choices. The last thing the world needs now is another war. So, all
sides should enforce a lasting ceasefire between Armenia and Azerbaijan and
ensure calm in the troubled mountains of Nagorno-Karabakh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
18)Consider the following :
1)The city of Varanasi has been nominated as the first-ever
SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital during the period 2022-2023 at the 22nd
Meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Council of Heads of State in
Samarkand, Uzbekistan on September 16, 2022.
2)The nomination of
Varanasi as the first ever SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital will promote
tourism, cultural and humanitarian exchanges between India and the SCO member
Countries.
3)It also underlines
India’s ancient civilizational links with Member States of SCO, especially the
Central Asian Republics
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
19)Consider the following SCO Meeting in Samarkhand :
1)That the world is in
a state of flux — with all its complexities, hopes, aspirations and fears, but
unable to embrace new realities — was in evidence in the historic city of
Samarkand during the summit (September 15-16) of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation (SCO) when key world leaders groped in the dark for an ideal world
order.
2)The realities they
faced were mind-boggling even without their traditional rivals breathing down
their necks. Russia was clearly in the dock for its invasion of Ukraine, but
the former Soviet Republics were not in a position to call a spade a spade.
3)China was vulnerable
because of the deal it had struck with Russia on Taiwan in return for a pledge
to support Russia in its war with Ukraine. China appears to have made up its
mind that its future lies with Russia as it does not see itself becoming a
partner of the U.S. The U.S. seems to have chosen to be with democratic
countries in its eventual return to centre stage.
4)The emergence of a
Red Quad may well be a possibility to counter democratic forces in the Indo-Pacific.
The U.S.’s decision to modernise the Pakistani air force may be to preempt
Pakistan from becoming a closer ally of China.
5)Apart from the SCO’s
new agreements on regional engagement, discussions among the eight members
including four Central Asian states (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and
Uzbekistan) focused on inducting Iran as a member, broadening the SCO dialogue
partners to West and South Asia, and on trade, tourism and counter-terrorism in
the region
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
20)Consider the following :
1)At the SCO meeting in
Samarkhand , Mr. Modi made certain significant observations which mirror
India’s new version of Non-alignment.
2)For instance, after
refusing to take sides in the Ukrainian conflict for months, Mr. Modi told Mr.
Putin that “this isn’t the era of war”, stressing instead that “it was one of
democracy, dialogue and diplomacy”.
3)This has been
interpreted as a mild rebuke of Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. On the other
hand, in his formal opening remarks at the summit, Mr. Modi thanked both Russia
and Ukraine for the evacuation of Indian students from Ukraine, highlighting
India’s posture of equidistance between the two countries.
4)The philosophical
underpinning for this seems to be that ‘Nonalignment of the past’ had not
succeeded, and a way had to be found for “multiple engagements of the future”.
Mr. Modi’s presence at this SCO summit is possibly the earliest test case of
this unfolding strategy, given that it is only recently that the United States
and other western allies had complimented India for its participation in the
Quad (Australia, Japan, India and the U.S.). Whether India can make out a case
for ‘mixing utopia with reality’ under the label of ‘multi alignment’ is yet to
be seen, but it does provide grist to an idea being floated that this provides
leeway for India to play a much bigger role in ‘managing conflict’.
5)It would be interesting
to see whether this SCO summit will pave the way for India to exploit other
situations created by political contradictions and use them to its advantage.
6)A test case is India’s
relations with Iran which have been on the backburner for some time, following
a U.S. threat to impose sanctions on India if it continued to trade with Iran.
Iran’s President appears to have floated a suggestion to hold a summit meeting
with India’s Prime Minister, and the ball is apparently in India’s court. The
cost to India on account of the freeze in relations with Iran has been high,
including having to pay higher prices for crude and the inability to utilise
the Chabahar Connectivity Project as an alternate route to Afghanistan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
21)Consider the following :
1)Russia has exported to India at least 3.7 million tonnes of
all seaborne Urals supplies via the ports of Primorsk, Ust-Luga and
Novorossiisk in November, Reuters calculations based on Refinitiv and traders’
data showed .(December,2022)
2)Russian Urals oil shipments to India accounted for about 53% —
a record-high share of total tanker Urals shipments in November, calculations
showed.
3)The total volume of shipments of Urals oil from the Russian
ports, excluding the transit volumes of Kazakhstan, slid in November while
nearing the embargo, which prohibits the European Union purchasing Russian
seaborne crude after December 5.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
22)Consider the following Russia violated international
law in UKrain ? :
1)The newest item added to
the long Russian list of barefaced violations of international law is the recent
annexation of Donetsk, Luhansk, Zaporizhzhia, and Kherson — the four regions
that are an integral part of Ukraine.
2)Despite widespread
global condemnation, including a resolution in March 2022 adopted by 141
countries in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) demanding that Russia
immediately and unconditionally withdraw from Ukraine, Moscow brazenly
continues with its illegal military offensive against Kyiv.
3)The resolutions by UNGA
are not binding, but decisions by the International Court of Justice
(ICJ) are.
4)On Ukraine’s
application, the ICJ, in a provisional measure ruling, again in March, ordered
Russia to immediately suspend its military operations in Ukraine. Russia has
not complied with this decision. In the meanwhile, Russian troops in Ukraine
have been accused of indulging in war crimes under international humanitarian
law.
5)Under international law,
Russia’s control over the four Ukrainian regions, before the so-called
referendums, is known as ‘belligerent occupation’. Rules on belligerent
occupation are explained under the Hague Convention of 1899 — the first treaty
that laid down the laws of war.
6)Article 43 of the
Convention states that if “the authority of the legitimate power over
territory” has “passed into the hands of the occupant, the latter shall take
all steps in his power to re-establish and ensure public order and safety”.
Furthermore, while doing so, the occupant shall “respect, unless absolutely
prevented”, the domestic laws of the country whose territory it has occupied.
7)Russia’s unilateral
action of merging the four Ukrainian territories with it is a flagrant
violation of Article 43 of the Hague Convention. The
Article clearly states that Russia, being the occupier, only has ‘authority’
and not ‘sovereignty’ over these regions.
8)Further, any change in
this status, i.e. from ‘authority’ to ‘sovereignty’ can only happen with
Ukraine’s consent. Moreover, Russia should have retained the existing Ukrainian
laws of these regions. But Russia has made these regions part of its own
territory, which means, Russian laws would apply there now.
9)What is ironic is that
the Hague Conferences were led by the Russian Tsar Nicholas II. For all the
criticism of the West, Mr. Putin is not even following a law whose creation was
led by his own countrymen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
23)Consider the following :
1)Major oil-producing countries led by Saudi Arabia and Russia
agreed to maintain their current output
levels in a climate of uncertainty and ahead of fresh sanctions against Moscow
coming into force next week.(December 2022)
2)The representatives of the 13 members of the Organization of
the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) led by Riyadh decided to stick to
their course agreed in October of a production cut of two million barrels per
day until the end of 2023.
3)OPEC+ described its October decision to cut as one “which was
purely driven by market considerations”, adding that it had been “the necessary
and the right course of action towards stabilising global oil markets”, a
statement said.
4)The next OPEC+ ministerial meeting is scheduled for June 4,
2023.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
24)Consider the following :
1)Four
leaks were reported at different points in the Nord Stream pipelines, linking
Russia and Europe, since September 26. Two of the leaks were in Swedish waters
while the other two were reported from Danish waters.
2)The
European Union said they suspected “sabotage” behind the leaks while the
Russian Foreign Ministry said that the ruptures to the pipelines took place in
territory that was “fully under the control” of U.S. intelligence agencies
3)The
$7.1 (€7.4) billion Nord Stream 1 subsea pipeline has been operational since
2011, and is the largest single supply route for Russian gas to Europe. The
Russian state-owned gas company Gazprom has a majority ownership in the
pipeline, and while it was running at just 20% of its capacity since the
Russia-Ukraine conflict began, the company, in early September fully cut gas
flows from the pipeline on the pretext of maintenance. According to Bloomberg,
while 40% of Europe’s pipeline gas came from Russia before the war, the number
now stands at just 9%.
4)The
construction of the $11 billion-worth Nord Stream 2 was completed in 2021 but
never began commercial operations. Even though both pipelines were not running
commercially, they had millions of cubic metres of gas stored in them
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
25)Consider the following
about Suriname, Curacao, Aruba in Caribbean and Indonesia :
1)Dutch Prime Minister Mark Rutte officially apologised for 250 years of the
Netherlands’ involvement in slavery, calling it a “crime against humanity”.
2)The apology comes almost 150 years after the end of slavery in
the European country’s overseas colonies, which included Suriname
and islands such as Curacao and Aruba in the Caribbean and Indonesia in
the East.
3)“Today (19.12.2022), on behalf of the Dutch government, I
apologise for the past actions of the Dutch state,” Mr. Rutte said in a speech
in The Hague.
4)“We, living in the here and now, can only recognise and
condemn slavery in the clearest terms as a crime against humanity,” he said.
5)Dutch ministers have travelled to seven former colonies in
South America and the Caribbean for the event.
6)Sigrid Kaag, the Dutch Finance Minister and Deputy Prime
Minister, said during an official visit to Suriname that a “process” would begin leading up to
“another incredibly important moment on July 1 next year”.
7)Descendants of Dutch slavery will then celebrate 150 years of
liberation from slavery in an annual celebration called “Keti Koti” (Breaking
the Chains) in Surinamese.
8)But the plan has caused controversy. Some of the groups and
the affected countries criticised the move as rushed, and said the whole
process lacked of consultation by the Netherlands.
9)They also said the actions smacked of a colonial attitude.
10)But Mr. Rutte in his speech
said that choosing the right moment was a “complicated matter”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
26)Consider the following
SARAS 3 radio telescope :
1)SARAS 3, a radio telescope designed and built at the Raman
Research Institute (RRI) here, has provided clues to the nature of the
universe’s first stars and galaxies.
2)Using data from the telescope which has been deployed over the
Dandiganahalli Lake and Sharavati backwaters since 2020, astronomers and
researchers have been able to determine properties of radio luminous galaxies
formed just 200 million years post the Big Bang, a period known as the Cosmic
Dawn.
3)Researchers Saurabh Singh from the RRI and Ravi Subrahmanyan
from the Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO)
in Australia, along with collaborators at the University of Cambridge and
University of Tel Aviv, have used data from SARAS 3 to throw light on the
energy output, luminosity, and masses of the first generation of galaxies that
are bright in radio wavelengths.
4)“The results from the SARAS 3 telescope are the first time
that radio observations of the averaged 21-centimetre line have been able to
provide an insight into the properties of the earliest radio loud galaxies that
are usually powered by supermassive black holes,” said Subrahmanyan, former
Director of the RRI and currently with CSIRO. Explaining the findings,
Professor Singh said SARAS 3 had improved the understanding of astrophysics of
Cosmic Dawn by telling astronomers that less than 3% of the gaseous matter
within early galaxies was converted into stars, and that the earliest galaxies
that were bright in radio emission were also strong in X-rays, which heated the
cosmic gas in and around the early galaxies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
27)Consider the following :
1)Social media users will
now have the option to appeal against the grievance redressal process of the
platforms such as Twitter, Facebook and YouTube, before an appellate panel to
be formed by the government, with the Centre notifying the amendments to the IT
intermediary rules on October 28.
2)“The central government
shall, by notification, establish one or more Grievance Appellate
Committees within three months,” according to the gazette notification.
3)Each committee, which
will have the power to overturn content moderation decisions made by social
media platforms, will consist of a chairperson and two whole-time members
appointed by the Centre, of which one will be a member ex-officio and two shall
be independent members.
4)The new law follows
multiple stand-offs between the Centre and social media platforms over content
moderation and pulling down of content.
5)In July, Twitter had
moved the Karnataka High Court seeking review and relief from “over-broad and
arbitrary” content blocking orders from the government.
6)As per the notification,
any person aggrieved by a decision of the intermediary’s grievance officer may
prefer an appeal to the Grievance Appellate Committee within 30 days from the
date of receipt of communication from the intermediary.
The
committee will “make an endeavour to resolve the appeal finally within thirty
calendar days from the date of receipt of the appeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
28)Consider the following :
1)Hawaii’s Mauna Loa, the world’s largest active
volcano, began spewing ash and debris from its summit, prompting civil
defence officials to warn residents
(November,2022 )to prepare in case the eruption causes lava to flow
toward communities.
2) The eruption began
following a series of earthquakes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
29)Consider the following
water shortage :
1)The UNESCO United
Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern
over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and
human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being
experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, ‘Coping with water
scarcity’ was the theme of World Water Day (observed on March 22). The new
Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with
millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their
livelihood.
2)Further, the Water
Scarcity Clock, an interactive webtool, shows that over two billion people live
in countries now experiencing high water stress; the numbers will continue to
increase.
3)The Global Drought Risk
and Water Stress map (2019) shows that major parts of India, particularly west,
central and parts of peninsular India are highly water stressed and experience
water scarcity.
4)A NITI Aayog report, ‘Composite
Water Management Index’ (2018) has sounded a note of caution about the
worst water crisis in the country, with more than 600 million people facing
acute water shortages. The typical response of the areas where water shortage
or scarcity is high includes transfer of water from the hinterlands/upper
catchments or drawing it from stored surface water bodies or aquifers. This
triggers sectoral and regional competition; rural-urban transfer of water is
one such issue of global concern.
5)Increasing
trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted
in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in
2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated
500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000km. At
least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN
report on ‘Transboundary Waters Systems – Status and Trend’ (2016) linked this
issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to
be achieved during 2015 to 2030. The report identified risks associated with
water transfer in three categories of biophysical, socio-economic and governance.
South Asia, including India, falls in the category of high biophysical and the
highest socio-economic risks.
6)According to Census
2011, the urban population in India accounted for 34% of total population
distributed in 7,935 towns of all classes. It is estimated that the urban
population component in India will cross the 40% mark by 2030 and the 50% mark
by 2050 (World Urbanization Prospects, 2018). The urban population accounted
for 50% of the total world population by the end of the last century. Although
the pace of India’s urbanisation is relatively slow, it is now urbanising at a
rapid pace — the size of the urban population is substantial.
7)Water use in the urban
sector has increased as more and more people shift to urban areas, and per
capita use of water in these centres rises, which will continue to grow with
improved standards of living.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
30)Consider the following about Default Bail :
1)The right to statutory bail, often known as default bail, is available to accused
persons in cases when the investigating agency fails to complete its
investigation within the stipulated time. Under Section 167(2) of the Code
of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), the maximum time available to investigators is 60
or 90 days, depending on the seriousness of the offence.
2)If the authorities are unable to complete the investigation
within this time period, the accused can seek to be released from custody by
applying for default bail under the first proviso to
Section 167(2) of the CrPC.
3)Notably, the ‘default’ characteristic of this bail comes from
the fact that the application is unrelated to the merits of the case, and is
designed to prevent long-term detention of the accused.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
31)Consider the following :
1)The PoSH Act defines sexual harassment to include unwelcome
acts such as physical contact and sexual advances, a demand or request for
sexual favours, making sexually coloured remarks, showing pornography, and any
other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
2)Under the Act, an employee is defined not just in accordance
with the company law. All women employees, whether employed regularly,
temporarily, contractually, on an ad hoc or daily wage basis, as apprentices or
interns or even employed without the knowledge of the principal employer, can
seek redressal to sexual harassment in the workplace.
3)The law expands the definition of ‘workplace’ beyond
traditional offices to include all kinds of organisations across sectors, even
non-traditional workplaces. It applies to all public and private sector
organisations throughout India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
32)Consider the following IEPF :
1)The Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) is managed
by the IEPF Authority, which was set up in 2016 under the provisions of Section
125 of the Companies Act, 2013.
2)The Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of
administration of the IEPF, which, besides promoting awareness among investors,
makes refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits and debentures
and so on to rightful claimants.
3)As for investment education, the idea is to reach out to
household investors, housewives and professionals alike in rural and urban
areas and teach them the basics.
4)Focus areas include primary and secondary capital markets,
various saving instruments, the instruments for investment (such as mutual
funds, equity, among others), making investors aware of dubious Ponzi and chit
fund schemes and existing grievance redressal mechanisms, among other things.
Until the end of October, it had conducted more than 65,000 awareness
programmes covering 30 lakh citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
33)Consider the following crypto dilemma :
1)The crypto dilemma stems from concerns about the unregulated
currency having a destabilising effect on the monetary and fiscal stability of
a country.
2)Further, crypto exchanges in India are being investigated for
their alleged involvement in unlawful practices such as drug trafficking, money
laundering, violating foreign exchange legislation and evasion of GST.
3)As on December 14, proceeds of crime amounting to ₹907.48
crore have been attached/seized, three persons have been arrested and four
prosecution complaints have been filed before the Special Court, Prevention of
Money Laundering Act.
4)”The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recommended framing
legislation on the sector. It is
of the view that cryptocurrencies should be prohibited.” In a written reply to
the Lok Sabha recently, Minister of State for Finance Pankaj Chaudhary stated
that crypto assets are by definition borderless and therefore,
any legislation (for regulation or for banning) would require international
collaboration to prevent regulatory arbitrage. The collaboration must entail an
evaluation of risks and benefits and evolution of common taxonomy and
standards.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
34)Consider the following Deepfakes
:
1)Deepfakes are digital media - video, audio, and images edited
and manipulated using Artificial Intelligence. It is basically hyper-realistic
digital falsification.
2)Deepfakes are created to inflict harm on individuals and
institutions. Access to commodity cloud computing, public research AI
algorithms, and abundant data and availability of vast media have created a
perfect storm to democratise the creation and manipulation of media. This
synthetic media content is referred to as deepfakes.
3)Artificial Intelligence (AI)-Generated Synthetic media or
deepfakes have clear benefits in certain areas, such as accessibility,
education, film production, criminal forensics, and artistic expression.
However, as access to synthetic media technology increases, so does the risk of
exploitation.
4)Deepfakes can be used to damage reputation, fabricate
evidence, defraud the public, and undermine trust in democratic institutions.
All this can be achieved with fewer resources, with scale and speed, and even micro-targeted
to galvanise support.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
35)Consider the following about free foodgrains :
1)In a Cabinet decision , the Centre decided to provide 5 kg of
free foodgrains per month for the 81 crore beneficiaries of the National Food
Security Act (NFSA) during 2023, rather than charging them a subsidised amount
of ₹3 a kg of rice, ₹2 a kg of wheat and ₹1 a kg of coarse cereal as is currently
done.
2)This will soften the blow of the termination of the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), which has provided an additional 5 kg
of free grains every month to NFSA beneficiaries after being launched as an
emergency measure in response to the COVID-19 pandemic in April 2020 and
received multiple extensions since.
3)In a normal year, without COVID disruptions, the Centre’s food
subsidy bill on account of the NFSA amounted to around ₹2 lakh crore. The
PMGKAY effectively doubled that sum for the past two years. Now that the Centre
plans to give free foodgrains under the NFSA for a year, it will spend an
additional ₹15,000 crore to ₹16,000 crore on that. However, the Centre will
save around ₹2 lakh crore by ending the PMGKAY scheme. Overall, the move will
relieve a major burden on the Union Budget.
4)Experts point out that the move will be even more of a relief
for stressed foodgrain stocks. The annual foodgrain requirement for the NFSA is
about 520 lakh tonnes, while the PMGKAY required an additional 480 lakh tonnes,
according to Food Ministry officials. (The difference comes from the fact that
the poorest families coming under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana category received
35 kg a family every month under the NFSA, but received 5 kg per person under
the PMGKAY.)
5)At the time when the PMGKAY was launched, foodgrain
production, government procurement and government stocks were regularly
breaching record levels.
6)In 2022, however, the situation is different. Rice and wheat
harvests have both been lower this year, hit by climatic events and fertilizer
shortages in some areas. The global stress due to the Russia-Ukraine war has
also led to a situation of high foodgrain inflation.
7)India’s wheat stocks in particular, have dipped dangerously
close to the required buffer stock levels, with the Centre resorting to a ban
on exports to ensure food security for the domestic market.
8)It has also been forced to substantially reduce wheat
allocations under the Public Distribution System, and substitute wheat supply
with rice in States such as Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Continuing the PMGKAY
would have been unsustainable without further increasing procurement levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
36)Consider the following about Collegium System :
1)A
major confrontation is on between the Union government and the Supreme Court
over the former’s resentment towards the Collegium system of appointments and
its push to have a dominant say in judicial appointments and transfers.
2)The
government has also started airing its grievance against the invalidation of
the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) by the court in 2015.
3)The
current round of conflict has two triggers. One is the government’s repeated
public criticism of the Collegium system on the ground that it is “opaque”. The
other concerns a ping-pong battle between the Collegium and the government over
the names being recommended and reiterated for appointment in constitutional
courts
4)The procedure for appointment of judges to the Supreme Court
and the High Courts, in accordance with the Collegium system, was laid down in
the MoP prepared in 1998. It states that the initiation of a proposal for
appointment of Supreme Court judges vested with the CJI and that of High Court
judges with the Chief Justice of the High Courts concerned. The MoP required
the Chief Justices of High Courts to initiate the proposals six months prior to
vacancies.
5)The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act was passed by Parliament
to provide for a National Judicial Commission, which was duly formed by the
NJAC Act. On October 12, 2015, the court struck down the NJAC Act and the
Constitution Amendment which sought to give politicians and civil society a
final say in the appointment of judges to the highest courts.
6)However, the court said the 21-year-old Collegium system
needed a re-look. The court directed the government to finalise a revised MoP
in consultation with the CJI and the Collegium. A revised MoP was sent to the
CJI by the government on March 22, 2016 for the response of the Collegium.
7)The Collegium responded with its own revisions on May 25 and
July 7 of 2016. There was an additional round of consultation when the
government responded to these revisions on August 3, 2016 to which the
Collegium sent back comments on March 13, 2017. Incidentally, the government,
after a gap of three months, wrote to the Chief Justice of India on July 4,
2017, drawing the latter’s attention to the court’s own judgment in a suo motu
contempt case against Calcutta High Court judge, Justice C.S. Karnan, who was
sentenced to six months’ imprisonment. Two judges on the Bench, Justices Ranjan
Gogoi and J. Chelameswar, had observed that the appointment of Mr. Karnan
revealed loopholes in the Collegium system and laid bare the lacunae in making
a correct “assessment of the personality” at the time of elevation of people to
the Bench. The court did not respond to the letter, according to the
government. The Centre said it would finalise the MoP only after receiving
inputs from the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
37)Consider the following :
1)Scientists in the United Kingdom testing a new form of cancer
therapy, reported success in a teenaged girl, Alyssia, with a form of cancer
called T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
2)In this form of blood cancer, the T-cells, which are a class
of white blood cells, equipped to hunt and neutralise threats to the body, turn
against the body and end up destroying healthy cells that normally help with
immunity. The disease is rapid and progressive and is usually treated by
chemotherapy and radiation therapy.
3)It is reported that Alyssia, 13, tried several of the
standard treatments including chemotherapy and radiation but with limited
success. Just when it seemed there was no hope, she was enrolled in the trial
testing of an experimental medicine. This trial was led by doctors and
scientists at the University College, London and Great Ormond Street hospital.
Alyssia was the first to receive experimental gene therapy that relied on a new
technique called ‘base editing.’
4)A person’s genetic code is several permutations of four bases:
Adenine (A), Guanin (G), cytosine (C) and thymine (T). Sequences of these
bases, akin to letters in the alphabet, spell out genes that are instructions
to produce the wide array of proteins necessary for the body’s functions. In
Alyssia’s case, her T-cells — perhaps because of a mis-arrangement in the
sequence of bases — had become cancerous. A way to correct this mis-arrangement
could mean a healthier immune system. In the last two decades, the world of
biomedical engineering has been enthused by a technique that allow genes to be
altered and errors ‘fixed.’ The most popular among these approaches has been
the CRISPR-cas9 system.
5)The
objective of the gene therapy in the case of T-cell leukamia was to fix her
immune system in a way that it stops making cancerous T-cells. First, healthy
T-cells were extracted from a donor and put through a series of edits. The
first base edit blocked the T-cells targeting mechanism so it would cease
attacking Alyssa’s body, the second removed a chemical marking, called CD7,
which is on all T-cells and the third prevented the cells being killed by a
chemotherapy drug. Finally, the T-cells were programmed to destroy all cells —
cancerous or protective — with CD7 marked on it. After spending a month in
remission, she was given a second donor transplant to regrow her immune system
that would contain healthy T-cells
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
38)Consider the following about Uttarkhand :
1)Cracks first appeared in a few houses in Uttarakhand’s
Joshimath town in October 2021. Over a year later, by January 11, 2023, 723 houses
in all of the nine wards in the town had developed major or minor cracks on the
floors, ceilings and walls. In response, 145 families have been temporarily
moved to safer locations within the town.
2)At a height of 6,107 feet, Joshimath is a busy town in the
Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. Despite a population of only about 23,000, it
has been heavily built-on, with hotels, resorts, and a bustling market that
caters mainly to tourists, pilgrims, trekkers and personnel of the Army and the
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP).
3)After the 1962 India-China war, Joshimath emerged as a place
of strategic importance as it leads to villages along the India-China border.
It is also en route to Barahoti, a disputed territory along the border. The
town is also a gateway to noted sites of pilgrimage — Badrinath for Hindus and
Hemkund Sahib for Sikhs; the international skiing site of Auli; and the Valley
of Flowers, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
4)However,
today, Joshimath is overly burdened with structures built without any regard
for the land’s load-bearing capacity
5)Joshimath’s geological setting, together with the unplanned
and rampant construction in and around the town, has resulted in land
subsidence. The signs of sinking first appeared in October 2021, when 14
families in the Chhawani Bazar locality noted cracks in their houses.
Subsequently, cracks continued to appear around town and residents resorted to
repairs. The situation became particularly alarming towards the end of 2022 and
the beginning of 2023, when large parts of the town experienced sudden
land-sinking and several houses developed major cracks.
6)Joshimath is built on the deposits of an old landslide, which
means that the slopes can be destabilised even by slight triggers. The town is
also in Zone V, which, as per India’s seismic zonation scheme, denotes the
highest risk. It lies between two thrusts, the Main Central Thrust (MCT) and
the Vaikrita Thrust (VT), and thus occupies a seismically active terrain.
Geologist Navin Juyal, who conducted research on land subsidence in the town in
2022, said that because of the MCT, the area around Joshimath is highly active
in terms of slope mobility.
7)Joshimath is also prone to extreme weather. “Climatologically,
Joshimath lies in a region that frequently receives high-intensity, focussed
rainfall,” Mr. Juyal said. Extreme rains, for example, could trigger
landslides, since the slopes are precariously balanced, he said.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
39)Consider the following :
1)The
J&K Lieutenant Governor’s administration, in the third week of December,
notified fresh land rules under J&KLand Grant Rules-2022 and replaced the
J&K Land Grants Rules-1960, which dealt with the special rules to grant
government land on lease in erstwhile State of J&K.
2)Under
the previous rules, prime locations such as Srinagar, Jammu, Gulmarg and
Pahalgam were opened up for construction of hotels, commercial structures and
residential buildings in the past
3)According to the new land laws, the leases of current land
owners will not be extended in case of their lease expiry. It reads that all
leases, except the subsisting or expiredresidential leases, expired or
determined prior to the coming into force of these rules or issued under these
rulesshall not be renewed and shall stand determined.
4)Unlike the previous up to 99 years of lease, the lease period
has been reduced to 40 years.
5)An expert committee will enlist all properties where lease had
ended. It will be e-auctioned afresh. The rules open bidding to “any person
legally competent under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.” These
rules deem a person or an entity in default of Government Revenue accrued to
the government under J&K Land Grant Act, 1960 or Government convicted under
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 shall not be eligible for
participation in the auction.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
40)Consider the following about Cyclone Mandous :
1)That
Cyclone Mandous, which had its landfall near Mamallapuram, near Chennai, in the
early hours of Saturday(December, 2022 ), did not cause much damage has come as
a huge relief to the people of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
2)At
one stage, it was expected to develop into a “severe cyclonic storm”, but did
not gain much strength.
3)Called
a “textbook cyclone”, the storm, as predicted by the India Meteorological
Department, crossed the coast with all the attendant features, to the
satisfaction of professional meteorologists.
4)Though
Cyclone Mandous was similar to Cyclone Vardah which made landfall in Chennai in
mid-December 2016, this event dumped heavy rainfall that was far more than what
occurred under Vardah. This time, not only parts of north Tamil Nadu but also
areas in neighbouring Andhra Pradesh experienced heavy rainfall. For instance,
Vembakkam in Tiruvannamalai district of Tamil Nadu and Srikalahasti in Tirupati
district of Andhra Pradesh bore the brunt, recording rainfall of 25 cm and 23
cm, respectively, during the 24-hour-period that ended at 8.30 a.m. on
Saturday. But more noteworthy was the way the official machinery in Tamil Nadu
steered the disaster management system. Despite the cyclone crossing the coast
at almost midnight and causing a number of trees and structures to fall, the
response of the administration was swift and the common man’s life hardly
disrupted. Five lives were lost, a count much lower than during disasters of a
similar magnitude
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
41)Consider the following :
1)EU
members have agreed to implement a minimum tax rate of 15% on big businesses in
accordance with Pillar 2 of the global tax agreement framed by the Organisation
for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) last year.
2)Under
the OECD’s plan, governments will be equipped to impose additional taxes in
case companies are found to be paying taxes that are considered too low. This
is to ensure that big businesses with global operations do not benefit by
domiciling themselves in tax havens in order to save on taxes.
3)Pillar
1 of the OECD’s tax plan, on the other hand, tries to address the question of
taxing rights.
4)Large
multinational companies have traditionally paid taxes in their home countries
even though they did most of their business in foreign countries.
5)The
OECD plan tries to give more taxing rights to the governments of countries
where large businesses conduct a substantial amount of their business. As a
result, large U.S. tech companies may have to pay more taxes to governments of
developing countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
42)Consider the following :
1)In
December 2022, Finance Minister told
Parliament that banks had written off bad loans worth ₹10,09,511 crore during
the last five financial years.
2)A
National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd. (NARCL) was announced in the Union
Budget for 2021-2022 to resolve stressed loans amounting to about ₹2 lakh crore
in phases
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
43)Consider the following
NPA :
1)A bad loan is that which has not been ‘serviced’ for a certain
period. Servicing a loan is paying back the interest and a small part of the
principal — depending on the agreement between bank and borrower — to begin
with so that over time, you pay back the principal as well as the interest
accrued in the duration.
2)In 2009, the RBI brought out norms that set out categories of
NPAs and what banks must do as these bad loans aged. Bad loans are a problem,
for, with time, there is less and less certainty that the loan would be paid
back in full.
3)The RBI’s master circular in 2009 started off the journey on
NPA recognition. It states that if an asset has been ‘doubtful’ for a certain
period, the value of that asset must be provided for in parts, as the asset
ages. There was a revision in October 2021 which made recognition far more
stringent.
4)Interestingly,
even if the asset is standard and there is no problem with it, banks are
expected to make provisions depending on the risk element for that sector. Like
home loans with teaser rates are at greater risk than those that aren’t. Hence
provisions have to be made for such loans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
44)Consider the following :
1)More than 140 experts and dignitaries have signed an open
letter published by the Outer Space Institute (OSI) calling for both national
and multilateral efforts to restrict uncontrolled re-entries — the phenomenon
of rocket parts falling back to earth in unguided fashion once their missions
are complete. Among others, the letter is addressed to S. Somanath, chairman of
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2)In an uncontrolled re-entry, the rocket stage simply falls.
Its path down is determined by its shape, angle of descent, air currents and
other characteristics. It will also disintegrate as it falls. As the smaller
pieces fan out, the potential radius of impact will increase on the ground.
3)Some pieces burn up entirely while others don’t. But because
of the speed at which they’re travelling, debris can be deadly.
4)A 2021 report of the International Space Safety Foundation
said, “an impact anywhere on an airliner with debris of mass above 300 grams
would produce a catastrophic failure, meaning all people on board would be
killed”.
5)Most rocket parts have landed in oceans principally because
earth’s surface has more water than land. But many have dropped on land as
well.
6)India’s 300-kg RISAT-2 satellite re-entered earth’s atmosphere
in October after 13 years in low-earth orbit. The ISRO tracked it with its
system for safe and sustainable space operations management from a month
beforehand. It plotted its predicted paths using models in-house. The
RISAT-2 eventually
fell into the Indian Ocean on October 30.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
45)Consider the following :
1)The Soviet Union launched the first artificial satellite in
1957.
2)Today, there are more than 6,000 satellites in orbit, most of
them in low-earth (100-2,000 km) and geostationary (35,786 km) orbits, placed
there in more than 5,000 launches.
3)The number of rocket launches have been surging with the
advent of reusable rocket stages.
4)Rockets
have multiple stages. Once a stage has increased the rocket’s altitude and
velocity by a certain amount, the rocket sheds it. Some rockets jettison all
their larger stages before reaching the destination orbit; a smaller engine then
moves the payload to its final orbit. Others carry the payload to the orbit,
then perform a deorbit manoeuvre to begin their descent. In both cases, rocket
stages come back down — in controlled or uncontrolled ways
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
46)Consider the following :
1)U.S.-China
relations have witnessed an unprecedented downturn in 2022.
2)Nancy
Pelosi’s historic visit to Taiwan in August has deeply upset bilateral ties.
The imposition of heavy restrictions on China’s semiconductor industry by the
U.S. in October has fanned the flames of rivalry further. Amid this escalation,
the U.S. President Joe Biden and Chinese President Xi Jinping had their first
in-person interaction on the sidelines of the G-20 summit in Bali in November,
signalling a probable relaxation of the growing tensions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
47)Consider the following :
1)India’s first case of the XBB.1.5 subvariant of Omicron was
confirmed in Gujarat by the national genome sequencing consortium on December
31. XBB.1.5 has been driving COVID-19 cases in the U.S. Studies of the strain
indicate that it is highly transmissible and evades pre-existing immunity.
2)Yet it doesn’t seem to cause severe disease. But U.S.
scientist Eric Topol wrote that it isn’t just superficially scary and we need
to pay attention to it.
3)The global prevalence of XBB.1.5 isn’t clear yet, although its
parent strain has been detected in at least 35 countries. By December 30,2022
XBB.1.5 accounted for 40.5% of all new cases in the U.S., up from 21.7% a week
earlier.
4)XBB.1.5
is a recombinant, which means its genome is the product of the genomes of two
different strains spliced together. This can happen when two strains infect a
person at the same time; a recombinant variant is produced as they replicate
together. Recombinant strains also arise when existing recombinant strains
mutate.
5)Previous
recombinants include XD (Delta + Omicron), XE (BA.1 + BA.2), and XBB (BA.2.10.1
+ BA.2.75).
6)The
XBB strain is descended from BA.2.10.1.1 and BA.2.75.3.1.1.1. It mutated
further and became XBB.1.5. XBB.1, which also descended from XBB, accounted for
14% of new cases in India around mid-December 2022
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
48)Consider the following :
1)The Russian-controlled Crimean peninsula in Ukraine was targeted by a drone
attack in November, 2022 and Moscow’s forces there were “on alert”,
Kremlin-installed authorities said.
2)“There is an attack with drones,” the Governor of the
Sevastopol administrative region in Crimea, Mikhail Razvozhayev, said on
Telegram. “Our air defence forces are working right now.”
3)He said two drones had “already been shot down”.
4)Mr. Razvozhayev said no civilian infrastructure had been
damaged and called on residents to “remain calm.”
5)Russia’s Black Sea Fleet based in Crimea’s
Sevastopol port was
attacked by what authorities called a “massive” drone attack.
6)It led Moscow to briefly pull out of a landmark
Ukraine grain deal as
the attack damaged at least one of its ships.
7)Russia annexed Crimea from Ukraine in 2014 after nationwide protests
led to the ouster of Kyiv’s Kremlin-friendly president.
8)Its forces attacked Ukraine from several directions including Crimea.
9)The Moscow-appointed governor of the region said that authorities were strengthening positions
on the peninsula as Kyiv’s forces reclaim territory in the neighbouring Kherson
region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. a
49)Consider the following :
1)John
Lall opens his tribute to Agra and its most famous monument, the Taj Mahal, in
the book, Taj Mahal and Mughal Agra with
the words, “Unknown to the people of Agra, the destiny of their city hung on
the issue of a dynastic struggle in Central Asia. The year was 1483. A son had
just been born to the wife of Omar Sheikh, the Timurid ruler of Farghana. He
was given the name Zahir-ud-din Muhammad, but finding it difficult to
pronounce, his father’s nobles called him simply, Babur or Tiger.”
2)Some
43 years later, Babur set foot in Agra. It was to herald the golden age in the
history of the city. Babur noted the precise moment in his memoirs, Baburnama, “I entered Agra at the Afternoon [Prayer
of Thursday (28 Rajab) and dismounted at the manzil of Sultan Ibrahim
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
50)Consider the following :
1)Incidentally, Babur was not a Mughal. He was a Turk, and the
dynasty he founded was that of the Timurids. The name Mughal was misleading but
stuck to the family. It came to include the Turks and the Mongols. For all his
military prowess displayed at Panipat, Babur was not the first Turk/Mughal to
set foot in Agra. That honour went to his son, Humayun, whom he had despatched
with a handful of nobles to Delhi and Agra to safeguard the treasuries before
the Mughals arrived.
2)The Rajputs had built a fort called Badalgarh, and in 1504,
Sikander Lodi had stored his treasure here, and even transferred the capital
from Delhi to Agra. Soon enough, Agra itself was to become a treasure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. a
No comments:
Post a Comment